The Unions of Elves and Men

[Tar Elenion]

Originally Posted by William Cloud Hicklin

Tolkien wrote (can't find the cite) that, since the Valar had no authority to take away the Gift of Men (death), that any person with any Mannish blood was a Man, regardless of parentage. Earendil and Elwing and and their children were an Exception granted under extraordinary circumstances, and the choice only applied to them and their children, and Elrond's children. (Note also that Mithrellas' descendants were Men).

The quote is in HoMe 5:
"Now all those who have the blood of mortal Men, in whatever part, great or small, are mortal, unless other doom be granted to them; but in this matter the power of doom is given to me. This is my decree: to Eärendel and to Elwing and to their sons shall be given leave each to choose freely under which kindred they shall be judged."
Chapter 17, Conclusion of the Quenta Silmarillion

[Huinesoron]

Originally Posted by Huinesoron

This contradicts the various NoME texts which claim Arwen's choice was made at her wedding, and also implies the El-twins both became mortal.

Originally Posted by William Cloud Hicklin

I don't think the two cites are really contradictory, given Tolkien's old-school views: marrying a Man necessarily meant remaining with him/her in Middle-earth, and therefore staying behind when Elrond departed. I don't think it's necessary to pinpoint a moment when a "mortality switch" was flipped; Arwen does not appear to have died of anything except grief, and that essentially voluntarily.

Thinking on this a bit more, I suspect "doom" is used here to mean prophecy: it's not that Manwe made a whole new ruling at the birth of each of Elrond's children, but that they were already under the offer of a choice, and were prophesied to make that choice at the point Elrond departed overseas. Elrond's departure was a drawn-out process, so Arwen making the choice at her wedding fits into that.

I'm not sure what it means for the twins, though. "with him, or... remained behind" certainly implies that they had to get on the White Ship with their dad, but it's possible to read it as "depart to be Overseas with Elrond, or elect to remain behind permanently" - ie, the departure doesn't have to be on the same boat as him. But the simplest reading is that Elladan and Elrohir both chose mortality.

Oh! And one more legendary union for the list: the Took family spoke of having a "fairy bride" somewhere in their history. Her existence is even less certain than Mithrellas, but we can't in good faith ignore her.

hS

[Morthoron]

Originally Posted by Huinesoron

Thinking on this a bit more, I suspect "doom" is used here to mean prophecy: it's not that Manwe made a whole new ruling at the birth of each of Elrond's children, but that they were already under the offer of a choice, and were prophesied to make that choice at the point Elrond departed overseas. Elrond's departure was a drawn-out process, so Arwen making the choice at her wedding fits into that.

Tolkien, Professor of Anglo-Saxon as he was, is using the word "doom" in the Old English sense, "judgement". Mandos makes an irrevocable pronouncement on the fates of those entwined. He does offer a choice to Elros and Elrond, and the children of Elrond, but again, once that choice is made it cannot be revoked unto the end of Arda.

[Huinesoron]

Originally Posted by TY 2300

These children [Elladan, Elrohir, Arwen] were three parts of Elven-race, but the doom spoken at their birth was that they should live even as the Elves so long as their father remained in Middle-earth; but if he departed they should have then the choice either to pass over the Sea with him, or to become mortal, if they remained behind.

Originally Posted by Morthoron

Tolkien, Professor of Anglo-Saxon as he was, is using the word "doom" in the Old English sense, "judgement". Mandos makes an irrevocable pronouncement on the fates of those entwined. He does offer a choice to Elros and Elrond, and the children of Elrond, but again, once that choice is made it cannot be revoked unto the end of Arda.

Normally I would agree with you, but neither Mandos nor Manwe made any pronouncements at the birth of the El-twins and Arwen, down in the Third Age. (I mean, they may have done, but it would have been in Valinor - Elrond wouldn't have known about it!) This "doom" is also more specific than just "they shall have a choice" - it sets specific time limits on when those three would have to make it.

The Appendices actually use "doom" twice, back to back, to refer to the fates of Aragorn and Arwen:

Originally Posted by Tale of Aragorn and Arwen

But Elrond saw many things and read many hearts. One day, therefore, before the fall of the year he called Aragorn to his chamber, and he said: "Aragorn, Arathorn's son, Lord of the Dúnedain, listen to me! A great doom awaits you, either to rise above the height of all your fathers since the days of Elendil, or to fall into darkness with all that is left of your kin. Many years of trial lie before you. You shall neither have wife, nor bind any woman to you in troth, until your time comes and you are found worthy of it."

Then Aragorn was troubled, and he said: "Can it be that my mother has spoken of this?"

"No indeed," said Elrond. "Your own eyes have betrayed you. But I do not speak of my daughter alone. You shall be betrothed to no man's child as yet. But as for Arwen the Fair, Lady of Imladris and of Lórien, Evenstar of her people, she is of lineage greater than yours, and she has lived in the world already so long that to her you are but as a yearling shoot beside a young birch of many summers. She is too far above you. And so, I think, it may well seem to her. But even if it were not so, and her heart turned towards you, I should still be grieved because of the doom that is laid on us."

"What is that doom?" said Aragorn.

"That so long as I abide here, she shall live with the youth of the Eldar," answered Elrond, "and when I depart, she shall go with them, if she so chooses."

Aragorn's Doom is based on Elrond's observation and reading of hearts; and presumably on the prophecies of Malbeth the Seer, Ivorwen mother of Gilraen, and probably Gilraen herself. If Arwen had a Doom laid on her at birth, as the Tale of Years says, and if that Doom was that she had to choose her fate at the departure of Elrond, then it seems likely that that was of the same kind - a mix of previous and current prophecies and foresights, including the Judgement, but also bringing in other information. Maybe Glorfindel saw something, like he did with the Witch-king; maybe it was Celebrian employing the maternal foresight Tolkien used so often; or maybe it was someone who made no other impact on history.

(Presumably the Doom was originally spoken at the birth of the twins, and then Elrond said "she shall be under the same Doom as her brothers" at Arwen's birth.)

hS

[Mithadan]

Going back to the original question in this thread (and feel free to continue discussing Arwen, Elladan and Elrohir), Tolkien never writes about a male Elf marrying a female Man. Huinesoron mentions the following.

I vaguely recall one in-universe explanation holding that a mortal woman wouldn't be strong enough to bear a half-elven child (think the death of Miriel), but that might have been a fan-theory. Another possibility, which spans the border between internal and external, is that a woman can endure the loss of her husband because of her children, whereas fathers do not have the same attachment. (Not true, but Tolkien might have considered it to be.)

I do not recall an explicit mention that a woman cannot bear a half-elven child. However, NoME may provide a potential answer. Writing in the late 1950s through the 1960s, Tolkien discusses two aspects of Elvish child-bearing. The first is gestation. He goes back and forth a bit on this issue, stating in one place that an Elvish pregnancy lasts 9 years of the sun, then changes to one full year, and later amends to 3 years. This suggests a significant physical impact of an Elvish pregnancy. Then Tolkien mentions the recovery period after an Elvish child is born. He suggests that the mother's "time of repose" can be twelve years or more. While JRRT does not actually say so, perhaps he reasoned that a human woman simply cannot survive the effort needed to bear an Elvish child. Of course, this skirts the issue of a half-elven child...

[Galadriel55]

Originally Posted by Mithadan

Going back to the original question in this thread (and feel free to continue discussing Arwen, Elladan and Elrohir), Tolkien never writes about a male Elf marrying a female Man.

True, but we have one such union almost happen - Aegnor and Andreth. My knowledge of the Athrabeth is pretty superficial, but of all the reasons that Finrod provides against such a union, never (to my memory) does he say that childbearing is the dealbreaker.