Isengard- Help Wanted!

[Faramir Jones]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

So, one would think an offer from Saruman to Théoden through an emissary would have come prior to Théoden attaining the throne. What would the nature of an offer in that case have been?

Such an offer would, in my opinion, have been so calculated that, if it was refused, no suspicions would have been aroused.

But even before that, might making an offer to the heir, rather than to the monarch, be seen as problematic? I can understand Saruman making an offer to the heir (Théoden) if he was at odds with his father the monarch (Thengel), in the same way that Thengel was at odds with his father Fengel. We can see examples of this in the history of Britain and Ireland when the Hanoverian monarchs (1714-1901) were at odds with their heirs.

It appears that, from the sources we have, Thengel and his son got on well, compared to the former and his father. I've no doubt that, after Théoden was born, his parents would have tried the utmost to avoid such problems.

Taking that into account, Saruman making an offer to Théoden, without going through his father first would have been a serious breach of etiquette at best, and an insult at worst. Théoden would, as a loyal and loving son, have gone to his father about this offer, and a diplomatic row would have been the result.

That's why I can see Saruman making an offer to Théoden after his accession, but certainly not one while his father was still alive.