The Limitations of the Istari

[radagastly]

Originally posted by William Cloud Hicklin:

Gandalf, by contrast, has never expended any of his native power to control or rule anybody; it could be said that his power actually "grew" in that he was able to persuade the Free Peoples to join their power to him, without spending himself in coercing them or asserting 'lordship.'

This implies an interesting contrast between Gandalf and Saruman. Saruman's power (in part, of course) lay in the power of his voice to persuade others to his will. So persuading people depleted Saruman, but the same act enhanced Gandalf. I'm wondering, what are the implications of this difference?

What we see of Saruman's power at work seems to indicate that his powers of persuasion genuinely affect the hearts and minds of those under it's spell. It does not simply bend their actions to his will regardless of their own will or desire. It makes people want to believe him. That does not seem fundamentally different than Gandalf's ability to "spin" circumstances to persuade people. So what is the difference between the two? Motive? The plans of Eru?

Just some thoughts to ponder . . .