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#1 | ||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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Quote:
In the letter: Quote:
Granted, again the name Elrond does not seem to have retained this seeming meaning *Elf of the cave (note Elwing is here 'Elf-foam'), possibly denying this conception, but anyway there doesn't seem to be any fostering going on here. |
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#2 |
Dead Serious
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In many respects this is an unanswerable question. If you have The Silmarillion, you already "know" about as much as anyone else does about what happened in Middle-earth between the sack of the Havens and the end of the War of Wrath.
And this isn't just an uncertain ground because Tolkien never revisited this part of the Silmarillion after he finished The Lord of the Rings--which is case with the Tale of the Nauglamír--it's a part of the story that he never really addressed at all, except in the outline-esque early 1920s "Qenta Noldorinwa." Aside from that, the only references to what happened in Middle-earth during those years are only to be found in scattered notes and outlines (such as the Tale of the Years mentioned by Galin). Basically, the final chapter of the "Quenta Silmarillion" section of The Silmarillion contains as good a reconstruction of what happened as any--with added bonus that it was put together by his son and editor.
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I prefer history, true or feigned.
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#3 |
Blossom of Dwimordene
Join Date: Oct 2010
Location: The realm of forgotten words
Posts: 10,495
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I always thought that "Elrond" means Roof-of-Stars or something similar to that, and "Elwing" to be Star-foam
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You passed from under darkened dome, you enter now the secret land. - Take me to Finrod's fabled home!... ~ Finrod: The Rock Opera |
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#4 |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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Yes Elrond did not mean *Elf of the Cave according to later text (later than this letter). Sometimes I use 'seem' even though I'm really more sure than this might indicate. Anyway, I'm interested in the following question here (concerning the letter I quoted above):
Do people agree that the suggestion in the letter is that the 'infants' were left by the sons of Feanor just after they were carried off, to be found again by someone, and in this scenario would not have been fostered? That's how I read it, but I've already stumbled across an interpretation that the two were left at the time when Maedros and Maglor finally stole the Silmarils... which seems off to me, despite 'last act' above. ![]() |
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