Bio-warfare In Middle-earth

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Rumil

As has been mentioned, his 17th century plague might have been a smart move - he had no great strength of numbers, the West would lose heavily, and presumably orcs would re-populate faster.

*If* the Orcs had their origins as ruined Avari, would they not be immune to any plague or sickness , as the Firstborn were?

[The Might]

I think what also is important here is the fact that he simply did not need a plague during the WotR.

This is an easy explanation for many things that Sauron could have well used and did not - he was so confident and arrogant that he needed not bother come up with complicated plans, he knew that eventually he would defeat the West. Of course that turned out to be a mistake in the end...

[alatar]

I also think that Sauron wanted a 'clean' victory. I see him not as a rogue, bent on burning the whole place down, but as an evil but brilliant tactician and strategist. Instead of sending over yet another plague (the first already did its work well enough), he went for more conventional means to subdue his conquests. Sauron also used psychic biowarfare in the cowl of the Nine.

This more clean warfare would leave more whole survivors, which, methinks, he may have had other plans for.

[McCaber]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

*If* the Orcs had their origins as ruined Avari, would they not be immune to any plague or sickness , as the Firstborn were?

It depends on how fallen, exactly, the orcs ended up being. I can see the First Age orcs being incredibly better than the Third Agers, simply because the elven side of them was a lot stronger then. And over time, the elven blood most likely was weakened and diluted, so I can see the orcs being just as vulnerable to disease as humans. Not the same diseases, given the orcs' choice of habitations, but still illnesses.

[Elmo]

I reckon Morgoth didn't send out constant plagues because he had already spent too much of his power on orcses and dragons. He would have if he could as he was a nihilist who wanted everything and everyone dead.

Sauron might have had a similar lack of power but also he was content with creatures living as long as they were his slaves to do his bidding.

[Farael]

I agree with much of what has been said here, particularly on the fact that Sauron had no desire of being king over an empty desert. After all, even Mordor had arable lands!

But I think there's one more thing to consider: Plagues don't hold territories. Yes, they can weaken your foe and make it easier for you to conquer them, but at some point you have to get out and conquer them. So I would say that, as has been said before, Sauron felt the time was ripe for conequest and so a plague was not what he needed, he needed armies for control and occupation.

Furthermore, we don't really know how plagues were spread. It seems that the writers of the annals where such information was collected to make the appendixes of LoTR (after all, it's not Tolkien who speaks to us as a narrator) attributed the plagues to "ill winds" but then their societies probably knew nothing about disease vectors and microorganisms.

Is it possible that these plagues sperad by conventional methods? which include human-to-human (elf-to human?) contact, vector organisms like mosquitoes, aerosols and the like

Perhaps to spread a plague Sauron first had to infect a significant amount of individuals and send them to coexist with his targets. Then he created a "foul wind" which probably encouraged people to stay inside... and voila! Good situation for a rapid spread of a virulent and contagious disease! However, during times of high military tension, peoples would tend to be more xenophobic (See Rohan) and thus the disease would not have been easily introduced to their target lands!

Therefore (and finishing up a long, rambling post) Sauron's need for armed conquest of territories decreased his ability to spread disease among his enemies so that he would have reaped little or no benefit from trying.

Or perhaps, he did try and, for the reasons explained before, failed and thus we never found out!

[Inziladun]

I thought I would revive this old thread, because it still fascinates me.

Any thoughts as to the nature of these plagues? Illness caused by micro-organisms isn't exactly a known thing in Tolkien's Arda. How did Morgoth, and later Suaron, manage their bio-terror acts? Could the "plagues" have had a chemical origin, instead of one founded in biology? After all, we see the land around Angband and Mordor rendered sterile and void of vegetation. The Brown Lands were subjected to some sort of assault that made them utterly unusable for anything.

Gas warfare, perhaps?

[Morthoron]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

I thought I would revive this old thread, because it still fascinates me.

Any thoughts as to the nature of these plagues? Illness caused by micro-organisms isn't exactly a known thing in Tolkien's Arda. How did Morgoth, and later Suaron, manage their bio-terror acts? Could the "plagues" have had a chemical origin, instead of one founded in biology? After all, we see the land around Angband and Mordor rendered sterile and void of vegetation. The Brown Lands were subjected to some sort of assault that made them utterly unusable for anything.

Gas warfare, perhaps?

Plagues were once considered magic or "God's Wrath". The mind of pre-Enlightenment man would consider plague spreading by the air (often in conjunction with earthquakes or volcanoes), by sight, or by touch, but knew nothing of the actual method of transmission.

But Medieval men knew enough about plague to catapult infected bodies into walled towns under siege (and thus force a surrender), just as later Europeans knew well enough what would happen if they gave blankets infected with small-pox to Native Americans. Sauron or Morgoth, although not microbiologists or epidemiologists would have, being immortal and all, seen countless iterations of disease over many centuries, and would discover an effective method of transmission -- whether that be along trade routes (infected clothing, fabric, blankets), or merely through warfare, which was always an effective means of transmitting disease (hence syphilis was called the 'French Disease' in Italy, the French referred to it as the 'Neapolitan Disease', the Persians called it the 'Turkish Disease', and the Indians called it the 'Portuguese Disease' -- only the Spanish didn't blame another country ).

So, although Tolkien inferred the pestilence was airborne from the enemy, I'd prefer to consider that plague wasn't Dark Lord conjured, but Dark Lord administered.

P.S. Mordor and its environs were filthy by all accounts, and bad sanitary conditions were (and still are) the primary source of plagues and pandemics. So, Mordor could well have been a wonderful incubator for any number of infectious diseases.

[Zigûr]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

Any thoughts as to the nature of these plagues? Illness caused by micro-organisms isn't exactly a known thing in Tolkien's Arda. How did Morgoth, and later Suaron, manage their bio-terror acts? Could the "plagues" have had a chemical origin, instead of one founded in biology? After all, we see the land around Angband and Mordor rendered sterile and void of vegetation. The Brown Lands were subjected to some sort of assault that made them utterly unusable for anything.

The image of the "dark winds out of the East" has interested me for some time. This suggests, unless it is meant to convey a primitive understanding of disease, that it was spread atmospherically rather than by people or animals. It caused me to think of radioactive fallout which would spread through the atmosphere after a large nuclear detonation. A chemical poison seems quite possible, but it would have to be extremely potent to be effective when mixed with the atmosphere at large.

[Galadriel55]

Fascinating thread indeed. Lead me to delve into the depths of Wikipedia for information of all sorts of outbreaks and plagues in real world history, even though I should be doing readings (but the bubonic plague is so much more interesting!).

For myself, I try to keep my science in my textbooks, well away from my Tolkien. So when he says that the plague was brought by an evil wind, I take the point of view of medieval (and not so medieval) society and trust that the pestilence was caused by the air brought from Angband and Mordor. I did not think that these plagues were truly intentional, or at any rate not really planned out to the degree assigned in this thread, but rather as a sort of pathetic fallacy, with the weather itself exploding with the evildoers' malice on occasion. I am perfectly content with that, and I think that supernatural beings like Morgoth and Sauron deserve to retain a touch of the supernatural. If magic refers also to the deceits of the Enemy, surely such a thing as a plague can also be his magic!

But from the ideas above, I am a fan of Zigur's radioactive fallout theory. I've pictured both plagues to resemble more some lung disease - tuberculosis perhaps - but your theory really does fit the mode of transmission better. If we delve into the practicalities of the plague, though, there might be some problems. Firstly, radiation only causes severe immediate damage in high doses. Something that's carried this way and that by the atmosphere would probably be too dilute by the time it gets to Gondor to have such a result. It is more likely to act as a carcinogen and possibly teratogen. The issue with that is that it's unlikely to then be called a plague, as such, and especially unlikely to be associated with the evil wind, because cancer takes a while to develop and life expectancy may vary widely among individuals. The teratogen aspect is less likely but more fascinating, I think. But even so, Gondor's parents wouldn't discover the effects until long after the wind has passed, and I think they would have called it a curse rather than a plague. Furthermore, the danger with any biological weapon is infecting your own population. Microbes can be controlled, though, and your own population could be immune or otherwise protected from the pathogen. But as far as I know you can't protect the general population from radiation exposure, and it would have killed as many of Sauron's forces as it did of Gondor's. Sure, the wind blew Westward for a time, bringing the plague to them, but it couldn't have persisted to blow in that direction for long enough for all the radioactivity to be blown away into Gondor. Even so, it's an interesting and novel idea.

A general point to add about plagues - they are most effective in crowds. Once you decrease the population significantly enough, it seems that a natural quarantine would occur due to increased isolation, and the spread of the disease would slow. If Sauron would not be able to wipe out Gondor's population completely with a plague, and even if he just wanted to dominate it rather than destroy it, he would not be able to weaken them enough morally that their submission would be realistic. He would still have to go to war.

Why not send another plague before the War of the Ring? Perhaps because Sauron didn't intentionally send the first one either. Perhaps because he lacks the power. Perhaps an external consideration like his scheming in other countries. At the end of the day, he may just have been a wise fool - if he was fool enough to send his armies abroad rather than making them cover every inch of his borders and put guards at Mount Doom, he may not have had the wisdom or foresight to send another plague. Or he didn't anticipate the events to develop so quickly, and by the time he got them running it was too late to send a plague - he would want it to run its course and kill as many people as possible, and preferably die out too before he attacks, since no one wants to contact men known to be infected with highly contagious diseases, even in battle.