Why did Gandalf save Faramir? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Raynor · 02-25-2007, 04:15 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mansun

I always thought it was a deliberate diversion by Tolkein to ensure Gandalf & the Witch King do not meet in direct battle. He wanted the glory of felling the Witch King to belong to a lesser folk.

You may be right, that he was trying to make a point; in letter #156, he notes that "yet so powerful is the whole train of human resistance, that he himself has kindled and organized, that in fact no battle between the two occurs: it passes to other mortal hands". The point seems to be that Gandalf has succeeded in his mission, to kindle the hearts of Men to battle against evil, and that this battle can be won by them - fulfilling general (race) and particular (witch-king destruction) destiny.

MatthewM · 02-27-2007, 07:15 PM

Just for some further proof:

Taken from Appendix B: The Tale of Years: The Great Years-

January
25 He casts down the Balrog, and passes away. His body lies on the peak.
February
14 Gandalf returns to life, and lies in a trance.

Italiacs mine.

02-27-2007, 07:15 PM	#2
MatthewM Ghost Prince of Cardolan Join Date: Jun 2006 Location: New York Posts: 628	Just for some further proof: Taken from Appendix B: The Tale of Years: The Great Years- January 25 He casts down the Balrog, and passes away. His body lies on the peak. February 14 Gandalf returns to life, and lies in a trance. Italiacs mine. __________________ "Loud and clear it sounds in the valleys of the hills...and then let all the foes of Gondor flee!" -Boromir, The Fellowship of the Ring