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#15 | |||
Illustrious Ulair
Join Date: Aug 2002
Location: In the home of lost causes, and forsaken beliefs, and unpopular names,and impossible loyalties
Posts: 4,240
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Ok, so...
1) Did Tolkien set out intentionally, with 'malice aforethought', to write a work of philosophy - Is LotR a 'Philosophical novel'? 2) Did he write a philosophical work without realising it, unintentionallly - (ie the work presents us with a clearly set out, coherent & logical philosophical 'system')? 3) Is it possible for a reader to use LotR as a 'stepping off' point for a course in Philosophy 101 (ie - 'this character/event reminds me very much of what Plato said about 'x' or 'isn't it interesting how we can apply the medieval theory of Humours/four elements/Jung's psychological types/Tarot suits ...to the four Hobbits? Well, to 1) I'd say clearly he didn't. We have the letters, the early drafts, interviews, & at no point did Tolkien even imply that he wrote LotR as a philosophical work. To 2) I'd say no again - even if Tolkien himself had not picked up on the fact he'd written a philosophical novel one of his fellow Inklings would have & pointed it out to him. I think Tolkien was smart enough to know what his book was about & what it ws not about. To 3) I'd simply ask what novel you couldn't do that with. I think the problem is that you have two different things here which you're attempting to combine together, but these things are a bit like oil & water - both liquids but they won't mix. You'll either end up sacrificing serious study of philosophy in favour of literary analysis or vice versa. Now if it was 'Zarathustra & Philosophy' you wouldn't face that problem. Zarathustra was a philosophical novel, intended to set out Nietszche's philosophy in 'novelistic' form (yes, I realise that oversimplifies massively, but I hope you get the point I'm making). Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Or something.... |
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