Tapestry of Dreams, Part 2 Discussion

[littlemanpoet]

Originally Posted by Formendacil

Do I even make sense?

Absolutely. You make very good points.

Gondorian is not really Latin.
Rohirric is not really Anglo-Saxon.
Commont Tongue is not really modern English.

Nevertheless, what I have been doing is an imitation of what Tolkien was working at in his Notion Club Papers (I think), in which an Anglo-Saxon father and son from roughly 1,000 A.D. dreamed of himself being present at the Akallebêth, and he was able to recognize similarities in speech between what Elendil was saying and his own speech. So what I am doing may not be as finely crafted as Tolkien's, as I'm no gifted philologist. However, what I am doing has a precedent in Tolkien.

So maybe I'm not doing it the way it ought to be done, but I'm trying to be as canonical as I know how to be. I hope that helps to explain things well enough....