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#1 |
Pile O'Bones
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: Eriador
Posts: 11
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yes i think the right sentence is "The ring had given him power according to his stature" . and we can add something more. also we can say that ring give bearer what he need or what he wants. gollum had been given sharp-eyed and keen-eared because he had to hunting, he had to be nourished and so. but the ring would'nt give everything bearer wants because it must have a limit, doesn't it? and i don't understand why not bilbo baggins had been given any gift from the ring except long life. didn't he need anything or did'nt he want any power. may be he could'nt want power because he didn't know anything about the power of the ring. we can discuss which is much important; need or wish? maybe i'm wrong. the ring isn't a wish-master but i'm sure that it always give the wearer acoording to his/her need. what do you think? and what do you think about bilbo baggins? how can we put together the separated parts of enigma?
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There was Eru, the One, who in Arda is called Iluvatar; and he made first the Ainur, the Holy Ones, that were the offspring of his thought, and they were with him before aught else was made. Last edited by feonor; 12-09-2005 at 03:01 AM. |
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#2 |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Nov 2005
Location: In hospitals, call rooms and (rarely) my apartment.
Posts: 1,538
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Feanor,
In my humble opinion, Bilbo Baggins did not get any 'gifts' from the ring other than unusually long life because his heart did not desire it. He was a simple man (or hobbit rather) and he was not concerned with glory or fame. I believe that the powers of "perverting" the bearer's soul asociated with the ring were related to the "unconscious desires" of the bearer rather than what they consciously wanted. When Frodo offers the ring to Galadriel, she says that with it she would become a powerful queen, so terribly beautiful that everyone would stand in awe of her. I think this is in a way a hidden desire of hers. Instant gratification in contrast with hard work. She is able to reject the tempation of instant gratification (the ring) and therefore she shows a lot of strenght of character, yet Frodo had no such desires and therefore he was given no such gifts. I hope that was clear, let me know if it was not =) |
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#3 | |||
Laconic Loreman
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In German and Old English "weregild" was established by someone's rank. So, someone as high ranking as Elendil, Isildur would be able to take something of extreme value from Sauron's. And Sauron's most precious possession was the Ring. Anyway, Isildur had taken the Ring and claimed that since Sauron murdered his father and brother, the ring will serve as a "weregild," for his actions. Which again goes way back in history. So, with that cleared up, onto the actual question I guess. I don't think it's out of the question that a human (such as Aragorn) could have use the Ring to have armies flock to his banner and defeat Sauron. This was Boromir's aspirations, but whether it was the Ring filling his head with ludicrous ideas or not, who knows: Quote:
We also know that Galadriel and Elrond desired the Ring to gather an army to their banner and overthrow Sauron (though they were able to resist). So, I think this could be the same case if a mortal decides to take the Ring.
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Fenris Penguin
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#4 |
Spectre of Decay
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To clarify what Boromir88 has just said, weregild is Old English, and literally means 'man-payment' or 'man-price'. It is a form of compensation for death or injury, the purpose of which in early Germanic societies was to avert socially destructive feuds by providing a means of satisfying family honour without resorting to physical revenge. The price for a slave's finger was relatively small, that for a nobleman's sword-arm probably more than the average person could earn in a decade; for the lives of a king and his son, payable to their son and brother, it could be expected to be astronomical.
For Tolkien, Isildur's description of the Ring as 'weregild' parallels Gollum's repeated description of it as a 'birthday present'. It is a self-justifying excuse, intended to put his claim to something that he wants beyond debate. Both are reasonable claims, but neither is honest, and this becomes clear when Isildur announces in his own hand that "It is precious to me...": the reader is intended to realise that the same processes are at work in him that can be observed in Gollum, and that Isildur's expressed reasons cannot be trusted. The point is that whether or not Isildur could realistically use the Ring is irrelevant. He could no more bear to leave it on the battlefield or allow it to be destroyed than Sméagol could bear to let Déagol keep it. He wanted the Ring; whether or not it would be of any use to him did not signify.
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Man kenuva métim' andúne? Last edited by The Squatter of Amon Rûdh; 12-05-2005 at 10:39 AM. |
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#5 | ||||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Nov 2005
Location: In hospitals, call rooms and (rarely) my apartment.
Posts: 1,538
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But also we get Quote:
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#6 |
Candle of the Marshes
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: Flyover Country
Posts: 780
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Which raises the question of what exactly Gandalf was capable of becoming if he was the only one who could have used the Ring against Sauron. And if the example of Saruman is anything to go by, wizards could make themselves pretty terrifying even *without* the Ring...
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Father, dear Father, if you see fit, We'll send my love to college for one year yet Tie blue ribbons all about his head, To let the ladies know that he's married. |
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#7 | |||
Laconic Loreman
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The Ring's powers and Sauron's powers were one. He had poured so much of his own power in it, the Ring was bound to him. In order to break the "bond" and diminish Sauron one had to do as it says in the quote above. And as we see from Letter 246, Tolkien thinks only Gandalf would be able to do so: Quote:
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Fenris Penguin
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