If Gollum and Bilbo had parted in a civil manner... - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

bilbo_baggins · 10-27-2005, 01:53 PM

I really thought that your signature was appropriate there, davem, because obviously, somehow, Tolkien had to change some things in his extensive writings.

A question that this topic brought to my mind is whether or not The Hobbit precedes his writing and scrawlings on the History of Middle Earth? I can't look it up, but I think in the prologue of the Silm. Christopher Tolkien says how his fathers writings were found in high school composition notebooks. How early did JRR begin to formulate the history of the elves? Then we have TH, which is practically a bedtime story. Was it meant to cast a softened light upon a dark and troubled beginning of Arda that he had already come up with? Or was it meant to be something almost entirely different? It seems obvious that he changed personally very drastically between the 30's and 40's, between TH and LOTR.

Or did he mean to leave such a messily welded storyline as is? How we can go from a peaceful Hobbit-story, with nearly civil partings between Gollum and Bilbo, to Frodo's harrowing journey across Mordor?

Does anyone know when Tolkien first came up with, or began to write down his Silmarillion story? Does it precede the TH writings?

food for thought...

10-27-2005, 01:53 PM	#11
bilbo_baggins Shade of Carn Dûm Join Date: May 2003 Location: In my front hallway, grabbing my staff, about to head out my door Posts: 275	I really thought that your signature was appropriate there, davem, because obviously, somehow, Tolkien had to change some things in his extensive writings. A question that this topic brought to my mind is whether or not The Hobbit precedes his writing and scrawlings on the History of Middle Earth? I can't look it up, but I think in the prologue of the Silm. Christopher Tolkien says how his fathers writings were found in high school composition notebooks. How early did JRR begin to formulate the history of the elves? Then we have TH, which is practically a bedtime story. Was it meant to cast a softened light upon a dark and troubled beginning of Arda that he had already come up with? Or was it meant to be something almost entirely different? It seems obvious that he changed personally very drastically between the 30's and 40's, between TH and LOTR. Or did he mean to leave such a messily welded storyline as is? How we can go from a peaceful Hobbit-story, with nearly civil partings between Gollum and Bilbo, to Frodo's harrowing journey across Mordor? Does anyone know when Tolkien first came up with, or began to write down his Silmarillion story? Does it precede the TH writings? food for thought... __________________ "For with much wisdom comes much sorrow, and with more knowledge comes more grief."