Why the Lord of the Rings? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Lhunardawen · 07-24-2005, 11:45 PM

If I remember correctly, the title "The Lord of the Ring(s)" was not attributed to Sauron alone. Pippin called Frodo that in Rivendell, promptly followed by a rebuke from Gandalf, saying that Frodo is not "the Lord of the Ring," but Sauron. Does that tell us something?

But it's interesting to note that the book title says 'Rings.' Plural. Not just the One, but also the Three, the Seven, and the Nine. So this word alone encompasses most of the Free Peoples of Middle Earth, particularly the prominent characters (the Nazgul, Galadriel, Elrond, and Gandalf). The Hobbits were added into the mix through Pippin's words above.

Of course I'm merely speculating here.

07-24-2005, 11:45 PM	#7
Lhunardawen Hauntress of the Havens Join Date: Mar 2003 Location: IN it, but not OF it Posts: 2,538	If I remember correctly, the title "The Lord of the Ring(s)" was not attributed to Sauron alone. Pippin called Frodo that in Rivendell, promptly followed by a rebuke from Gandalf, saying that Frodo is not "the Lord of the Ring," but Sauron. Does that tell us something? But it's interesting to note that the book title says 'Rings.' Plural. Not just the One, but also the Three, the Seven, and the Nine. So this word alone encompasses most of the Free Peoples of Middle Earth, particularly the prominent characters (the Nazgul, Galadriel, Elrond, and Gandalf). The Hobbits were added into the mix through Pippin's words above. Of course I'm merely speculating here. Last edited by Lhunardawen; 07-24-2005 at 11:49 PM.