Tolkien's letter #180

[Ophelia]

Does anyone know if Tolkien left any statement about why he changed the names?

Well Bethy , my idea on this one is such : Tolkien gave many of his charecters two names (mayhaps some had more) and whilst writing the rough copy of everything , whilst it was still developing he himself developed his thought and knowledge in languages . And mayhaps , effected by all that , he came to use the second names instead of the first ones given .
And thank you for the kind words . It is interesting for me aswell

-Ophelia-

[Aiwendil]

Bethberry wrote:

True, but on Tolkien's own standard set by "Cellar Door" *coughs and looks at Fordim*, I would say the latter names trip off the tongue more easily, are more melifluous, and don't harbour any unfortunate allusion to star-crossed lovers.

But surely Tolkien would not agree - the names "Romestamo" and "Morinehtar" are perfectly good and aesthetically correct in Quenya. And Tolkien did not endeavour to avoid names that might bear coincidental relations to other names or be inadvertantly funny in the reader's mind.

HerenIstarion wrote:

Romestamo and Morinehtar sound more like titles, or job-descriptions , rather than names proper to my ear.

I have always felt this way as well. In any case (whether they contradict Alatar and Pallando or not) these names cannot have been intended as the original Valinorean names, since they have a specific bearing on the mission of the Blue Wizards described in the same text that gives them.