** Revising The Voyage of Earendil

[Maédhros]

Re: Fingon as Dadddy - The big difference, which I tried to point out, is that with Finarfin being made ruler of the Noldor in Aman, there is an official notification from the Valar. With a change from Fingolfin's House to that of Finarfin's we have no text ever doing it [obviously not from the Valar, but within the Noldor themselves, as with Maedhros earlier], so while a concern over Gil-Galad as possibly being in Nargothrond during Turin's sojourn there is understandable, as there is no text or hint as to how JRRT would have handled it, why is that less toubling than a similarly textless shifting of the High Kingship from the second house to the third?

This thing about the notification of the Valar brings up to me the little dialogue in the Shibboleth of Fëanor

As he said with some justice: 'My brother's claim rests only upon a decree of the Valar; but of what force is that for those who have rejected them and seek to escape from their prison-land?' But Fingolfin answered: 'I have not rejected the Valar, nor their authority in all matters where it is just for them to use it. But if the Eldar were given free choice to leave Middle-earth and go to Aman, and accepted it because of the loveliness and bliss of that land, their free choice to leave it and return to Middle-earth, when it has become dark and desecrated, cannot be taken away. Moreover I have an errand in Middle-earth, the avenging of the blood of my father upon Morgoth, whom the Valar let loose among us. Fëanor seeks first his stolen treasures.'

I really must be missing something but I really don't see a problem with Gil-Galad being the High King and of the House of Finarfin. The House of Fëanor was dispossed of it (although Maedhros claimed the lordship of all the Elves of the Hither Lands), there were no male survivors of the House of Fingolfin in ME (both Fingon and Turgon were dead), and the only male survivor of the House of Finwë was Gil-Galad.
Am I missing something?