Sam and Smeagol

[Imladris]

Why would Gollum have gone up to the Cracks of Doom after Sam had told him to leave if he had wanted to help Frodo? In my mind, Gollum went up to wrest the Ring from Frodo before it was destroyed. I think that this deep in Mordor, after Sam had just come close to slaying him and had sent him off in shame, he would certainly be acting totally out of the "Stinker" side of his brain, although Smeagol may still have been alive and conscious somewhere in there.

Point taken as well...but if Smeagol was alive and conscious somewhere in his brain, don't you think that the Smeagol also would have been acting subconsciously inside that shriveled little mind of his? Don't you think that a tiny tiny part of his brain wanted to save Frodo from the fate that Gollum himself had once suffered? Of course, his actions were probably 99% Gollum, but couldn't he have also been trying to save Frodo as well?

Can any mortal become fully evil in Middle-earth? I know that the Ring wraiths and the Mouth of Sauron did, but isn't that because they became a part of Sauron, as it were? But can any mortal who has not come under the full domination of the Ring become fully evil like Sauron? I think this needs to be answered before we can conclude whether Gollum/Smeagol was acting wholly from the Stinker side of him.