* *A New Project ~~~ Revising the Ainulindale* *

[Maédhros]

I think it was quite likely a slip of the pen, though it's also quite possible that Tolkien was reconsidering the fate of the Elves. I'm a bit wary about changing it. Anyway, "Children of Iluvatar" could refer to both Elves and Men, or it could refer just to Men. If, for example, I say "Elves", I could be referring to all Elves, or to some specific Elves, or to a group or type of Elves. The text as published, then, has the virtue of ambiguity.

Hmmmmmmmmmmm. So, when Tolkien refers to the Children of Ilúvatar, do you think he refers only to Men or to both Elves and Men?

[ January 14, 2003: Message edited by: Maédhros ]