Of the Three and the Fading of the elves

[Inziladun]

If the Three had the power to not only arrest decay in the wielder's immediate environment, but also affect the physical life-potential of living beings in that sphere of influence, would the effect be limited to Elves only?
The reason I ask is that there is a 'test case' of sorts, in the mortal Bilbo Baggins.
According to The Tale of Years Bilbo came to live in Rivendell in the year 3002 TA. He was met by Frodo and the other Hobbits in Rivendell in late October 3018, and observed to be quite active, both physically and intellectually. By September 3019, not quite a year later, age had obviously advanced in him noticably, to the point of his barely being able to keep awake.
There may be a temptation to ascribe that to the destruction of the One, which had been a factor in lengthening Bilbo's life during his possession of it; however, since its obvious negative effect of 'devouring' him had already ceased with his giving it to Frodo, presumably so had its 'positive' power of keeping him young.
So, if it wasn't the One continuing to affect Bilbo's life-span even after he no longer possessed it, the other power could be Vilya, as wielded by Elrond. When that was removed, age would have come crashing down on Bilbo very quickly. That said, it looks to me as if your idea is at least a possibility.

[Gorthaur the Cruel]

^ yes, good point, Inziladun. I never realized that. I always thought it was Bilbo's lack of possession of the One that made him age rapidly, or I might've misread that Biblbo already aged greatly in Rivendell the first time Frodo and comapny visited. Then maybe this is why the Three were far more powerful than the sixteen. Can we also speculate that if mortal people were to dwell in the realms of Rivendell or Lorien (with Vilya and Nenya in effect), said people will turn eventually into gollum-like creatures and feel stretched within themselves, or is it a "pleasant" experience considering the differing nature of the One (evil) and the Three (good)?

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Gorthaur the Cruel

Can we also speculate that if mortal people were to dwell in the realms of Rivendell or Lorien (with Vilya and Nenya in effect), said people will turn eventually into gollum-like creatures and feel stretched within themselves, or is it a "pleasant" experience considering the differing nature of the One (evil) and the Three (good)?

I wouldn't think Bilbo was in danger of becoming like Gollum. He lived in Rivendell for 16 years with no apparent negative effects, as opposed to the 'thin and stretched' feeling he had begun to have just before he gave up the Ring.
Now, I don't think the slowing of decay in mortals caused by the Three could have been indefinite, but who knows? Had the One not been destroyed Bilbo might have had another decade or so in him.

[Ibrîniðilpathânezel]

Let us not forget that Aragorn was raised in Rivendell, and lived there with his mother Gilraen after the death of his father. Nowhere does Tolkien (or any of his characters) mention that Aragorn's longevity was the result of his life in Rivendell; rather, it is attributed to the strength of his Numenorean blood.

Also to be considered is the matter of the Elessar, which was extraordinary in its healing abilities. Whether or not the one that was passed on to Aragorn is the original is not really important; the fact that Galadriel desired its power because it could help stave off the fading of the land is. Regardless of the version of the story in UT, the words are nearly the same:

"I grieve in Middle-earth, for leaves fall and flowers fade; and my heart yearns, remembering trees and grass that do not die. I would have these in my home."

Then Olorin said: "Would you then have the Elessar?"

And Galadriel said: "Where now is the stone of Earendil? And Enerdhil is gone who made it."

"Who knows?" said Olorin.

"Surely," said Galadriel, "they have passed over Sea, as almost all fair things beside. And must Middle-earth then fade and perish forever?"

"That is its fate," said Olorin. "Yet for a little while that might be amended, if the Elessar should return. For a little, until the Days of Men are come."

After which he returns the Elessar to her. In the other version, which is nearly identical save that Olorin is now Celebrimbor, the Elessar is remade for Galadriel in the Second Age by him. When he gives her Nenya, "she needed it (as she thought) no more, and she gave it to Celebrian her daughter, and so it came to Arwen and to Aragorn."

I find the "as she thought" part interesting, because it implies that she was mistaken. Regardless of whether or not she was, it would seem that the Elessar had great healing power over the land in which it was kept -- which, apparently, was first in Lorien, then in Rivendell, then back in Lorien again after Arwen gave it to Galadriel to give to Aragorn (a progression of possession that is stated in LotR when the Elessar is given to Aragorn). It may be that the Elessar has equal, if not greater, power to retard the fading of a land and its people.

Just a stray thought.

[Galin]

It's interesting that when Tolkien decided that time passed at the same rate inside Lórien as without, he noted however that it would be difficult to count the time in Lórien (italic lettering as published):

'... They cannot count the time, for they do not age in that time, but outside in fact 30 days goes by'. In Scheme a similar note says: 'They cannot count the time, for they themselves do not age or only very slowly. Outside in fact about 30 days passes.'

This was one of the effects of the Elven-ring worn by Galadriel. Bilbo had commented on a similar inability to reckon time in Rivendell, where Elrond also wore and Elven ring.'

The Lord of the Rings, a Reader's Companion, Hammond and Scull

As H&S also note, Bilbo remarks (Many Meetings) that time doesn't seem to pass in Rivendell: 'it just is'.



I find the 'very rough' Elessar text problematic in general, for example: why would Galadriel desire the stone in the Third Age after Gandalf arrives? Or why (according to the second version) would she think she needed it no longer in the Second Age when in another text, arguably written at about the same time according to Chistopher Tolkien (Concerning Galadriel And Celeborn), it was Galadriel herself that counselled Celebrimbor that the Three should be hidden and never used -- naturally enough, as Sauron still had the One at this point.

This is the power of the Elessar as first described in the Unfinished Tales text (italic lettering here for my emphasis):

'For it is said that those who looked through this stone saw things that were withered or burned healed again or as they were in the grace of their youth, and that the hands of one who held it brought to all that they touched healing from hurt.'

Granted, further description states or implies that the lands about the wielder grew fair, but, and this is just my personal opinion (and as of today), I think I prefer the Elessar being limited to this initial description, as I read it anyway -- by which I mean I am interpreting a lesser power here, in comparison to Nenya, based on this passage alone. This to me seems to nicely lay a foundation for the later and greater power to be wielded by Galadriel in the Third Age, even though she had to 'wait' for Sauron to lose the One to employ it.

Just to note that it exists: in the Later Quenta Silmarillion the -Green Stone of Feanor given by Maidros to Fingon- appears to be an 'alternate' previous history of the Elessar, and although both ideas are unpublished (by the author himself), and the LQS 'version' quite brief in any case, the text published in Unfinished Tales is later however.

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Galin

I find the 'very rough' Elessar text problematic in general, for example: why would Galadriel desire the stone in the Third Age after Gandalf arrives?

Indeed. When she already had possession of Nenya, for her to desire a stone with similar powers of healing and preservation as the Three makes little sense.

Originally Posted by Galin

'For it is said that those who looked through this stone saw things that were withered or burned healed again or as they were in the grace of their youth, and that the hands of one who held it brought to all that they touched healing from hurt.'

Granted, further description states or implies that the lands about the wielder grew fair, but, and this is just my personal opinion (and as of today), I think I prefer the Elessar being limited to this initial description, as I read it anyway -- by which I mean I am interpreting a lesser power here, in comparison to Nenya, based on this passage alone.

I tend toward that interpretation also, with the Elessar aiding the physical healing of beings as well. To me, that would explain how Aragorn's healing ability (though he already had displayed some native healing power, probably through his Maia and elvish blood) seems to make a large leap forward when he enters Minas Tirith with the Elessar in his keeping.

[Ibrîniðilpathânezel]

About the Elessar being a "lesser power": That's why I found it interesting that Tolkien wrote that Galadriel gave it away after getting Nenya because she thought she no longer needed it. This to me implies that there was more power in the Elessar than she had initially realized, or that Nenya alone was not going to prove to be as powerful as she hoped it would be. Galadriel may have wanted the Elessar because she realized that it had powers Nenya did not, or perhaps that it combined with a Ring of Power -- especially one bent toward preservation -- would be much stronger than either alone. Thus a realm having both the Elessar and one of the Three might be better preserved and protected than it would have been with either one alone. Nenya had the vulnerability of being linked to the One Ring (probably because it was made using methods learned from Sauron); the Elessar did not, and what was done with it may have not been subject to fading with the demise of the One. That could give Galadriel a very strong reason for wanting it back. Not that it necessarily would have worked in the long run, but one never knows unless they try.

[Galin]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

Indeed. When she already had possession of Nenya, for her to desire a stone with similar powers of healing and preservation as the Three makes little sense.

Yes, and I suppose it's possible that since we have (on purpose) two tales here, and 'though which is true only those Wise could say who now are gone', perhaps the Olorin version is 'meant' to be problematic, pointing to the more likely tale being the other one?

However I'm not sure I buy this (and I have at least one question concerning the other tale too).

I tend toward that interpretation also, with the Elessar aiding the physical healing of beings as well. To me, that would explain how Aragorn's healing ability (though he already had displayed some native healing power, probably through his Maia and elvish blood) seems to make a large leap forward when he enters Minas Tirith with the Elessar in his keeping.

I would include beings too. As we know, The Elessar itself includes Men, Elves, beasts, at Sirion's Haven, and I imagine they were individually ministered to (noting the Silmaril at the Havens in Silmarillion, just to mention it).


For clarity perhaps: the Elessar as a 'lesser power' is not really my interpretation of the whole text -- and in a sense then, not really my interpretation -- but rather what I feel 'would be' the better story. Tolkien and others may (and likely do!) disagree.

That said, Sauron still had the One on his finger and nobody knew he was going to lose it someday (or at least I don't recall anyone having foresight in this matter), so why would Galadriel give up the Elessar-stone upon receiving Nenya? No matter the potency of each, she could not use Nenya in the Second Age in any case... according to none other than her own great self.

[CSteefel]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

If the Three had the power to not only arrest decay in the wielder's immediate environment, but also affect the physical life-potential of living beings in that sphere of influence, would the effect be limited to Elves only?
The reason I ask is that there is a 'test case' of sorts, in the mortal Bilbo Baggins.
According to The Tale of Years Bilbo came to live in Rivendell in the year 3002 TA. He was met by Frodo and the other Hobbits in Rivendell in late October 3018, and observed to be quite active, both physically and intellectually. By September 3019, not quite a year later, age had obviously advanced in him noticably, to the point of his barely being able to keep awake.
There may be a temptation to ascribe that to the destruction of the One, which had been a factor in lengthening Bilbo's life during his possession of it; however, since its obvious negative effect of 'devouring' him had already ceased with his giving it to Frodo, presumably so had its 'positive' power of keeping him young.
So, if it wasn't the One continuing to affect Bilbo's life-span even after he no longer possessed it, the other power could be Vilya, as wielded by Elrond. When that was removed, age would have come crashing down on Bilbo very quickly. That said, it looks to me as if your idea is at least a possibility.

This is what I would argue--Bilbo aged rapidly once the One Ring was destroyed. After all, Gollum managed to live another 70 years after losing the Ring, despite having survived 500 years or so already. Gollum never had the benefit of exposure to another of the Rings...

[Gorthaur the Cruel]

Originally Posted by CSteefel

This is what I would argue--Bilbo aged rapidly once the One Ring was destroyed. After all, Gollum managed to live another 70 years after losing the Ring, despite having survived 500 years or so already. Gollum never had the benefit of exposure to another of the Rings...

Perhaps that is why Gollum's physical appearance became so twisted because of the lack of luxury of dwelling under a ring-enchanced environment (Lorien, rivendell), unlike Bilbo.