[J.R.R. Tolkien] Why Lord of the Rings? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Gorothlammothiel · 03-17-2003, 03:43 PM

I always believed that "The Lord of the Rings" was up to a personal interpretation as to whom it referred to, for there are many ways it could be read into.

For example, the "Lord" would first appear to be Sauron as he was the creator of the ring. But then you read a little deeper. Sauron needed the ring, for his power was contained within it, so does that therefore make the One Ring the "Lord" of the others?

Another interpretation could be that the "Lord" of the rings were any of those who showed a resiliance to its power (for the best part). Any of the Ring-bearers could qualify to be the "Lord" this way opening other 'doors' as such. Far-fetched? Perhaps, but still a possibilty.

That uncertainty comes from the title being so mysterious, as someone has previously mentioned. Even the early title "Return of the Shadow" could be interpreted in more than one way, so is it possible that Tolkien meant for this uncertainty when he chose "The Lord of the Rings"? That his "fairy story written for adults" leading readers to other worlds should not keep its readers wondering that after they put the book down, what was actually meant by the first words they read of that story?

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03-17-2003, 03:43 PM	#19
Gorothlammothiel Registered User Join Date: Feb 2002 Location: Sitting in front of my preferred world.... Posts: 254	I always believed that "The Lord of the Rings" was up to a personal interpretation as to whom it referred to, for there are many ways it could be read into. For example, the "Lord" would first appear to be Sauron as he was the creator of the ring. But then you read a little deeper. Sauron needed the ring, for his power was contained within it, so does that therefore make the One Ring the "Lord" of the others? Another interpretation could be that the "Lord" of the rings were any of those who showed a resiliance to its power (for the best part). Any of the Ring-bearers could qualify to be the "Lord" this way opening other 'doors' as such. Far-fetched? Perhaps, but still a possibilty. That uncertainty comes from the title being so mysterious, as someone has previously mentioned. Even the early title "Return of the Shadow" could be interpreted in more than one way, so is it possible that Tolkien meant for this uncertainty when he chose "The Lord of the Rings"? That his "fairy story written for adults" leading readers to other worlds should not keep its readers wondering that after they put the book down, what was actually meant by the first words they read of that story?