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Old 04-07-2002, 04:49 AM   #1
Ruthwen
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Silmaril After the One Ring was destroyed...

I'm not sure I quite understand what happened to the other rings after the One Ring was destroyed. Did they lose their potency?

And also, the elves. I've heard from some sources that after the One Ring was destroyed (this assuming that the elf rings lost their power) the elves could no longer be immortal on Middle-earth and they had to go to Elvenhome. And all the stuff about elves fading... LOL, I probably seem very ignorant but I just don't get it.
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Old 04-07-2002, 07:50 AM   #2
lathspell
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A long time ago the Rings were made of which the Ring-verse tells about. The three were the ones Elrond, Galadriel and Gandalf had. The One Ring was made by Sauron and was called the Ruling Ring, for if you had the One (and if you could control it) you could control the other Rings.
Once the Ring was destroyed the other Rings lost their power. This might have been the reason that most of the elves went to Aman, but I think their was much more in that decision. As for elves becoming immortal after the destruction of the One Ring - it's not true. The elves remained immortal, no matter what Sauron would try or invent... they were created in that way by Eru Iluvatar and Sauron had not the power to subdue this. Neither did the elves fade: the nine nazgul were originally important men, but they faded... the seven for the dwarves were found again by Sauron again or consumed by dragons (the dwarves never faded for their resistance was too great, they have a enormous resistance against magic). The three the elves had were never touched by Sauron, for the elves of old hid them from him, and that's why they wouldn't fade. Also that's the reason why he didn't know where they were or who had them.

I hope this explains it a bit [img]smilies/biggrin.gif[/img]

If you haven't done so before: read the Silmarillion and especially this chapter: 'The Rings of Power and the Third Age'... this chapter explains how the Rings were made and all about the plans of Sauron, and so on.
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Old 04-07-2002, 09:25 AM   #3
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Just one point: although the elves were immortal no matter what, as lathspell pointed out, elves who remained in Middle Earth after the 3 rings lost their power and the dominion of Men began did fade. There are many mentions of this, for example by Galadriel, in the Doom of Mandos, and in the narrative of the Silmarillion. It seems that it was part of the fate of Arda that the Elves who remained in Middle Earth would 'fade', becoming less potent and living more and more in memory, while the younger race of Men would take dominion of Middle Earth.

The 3 Rings of the Elves had the power the postpone this fading and weariness of Middle Earth, which is why when the One Ring was destroyed and the 3 Rings lost their power many of the Elves sailed West. The fading was not caused by the rings, but the rings once possessed the power to postpone the fading.
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Old 04-07-2002, 01:10 PM   #4
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Hmmmm... as elves start to fade, men start to gain dominion... Doesn't that sound like something quite familiar? It might sound stupid, but nowadays there's no magic creatures, only non-magic ones, like humans and animals. Couldn't it be possible that all this stuff Tolkien wrote about might be based on true events- events that happened long long ago? Remember what they said in the beginning of the movie? 'History became legend, and legend became myth, and things that should not have been forgotten, were.' or something like that. Whatever- just some random thoughts of mine!
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Old 04-07-2002, 01:17 PM   #5
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I've allways thought that ME was real... ever since I read,or was read to, The Hobbit.
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Old 04-07-2002, 02:38 PM   #6
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Ring

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Couldn't it be possible that all this stuff Tolkien wrote about might be based on true events- events that happened long long ago? Remember what they said in the beginning of the movie? 'History became legend, and legend became myth, and things that should not have been forgotten, were.' or something like that.
Professor Tolkien very specifically set his work in our own world. The concept that all of his myth took place in our own history, or before it, was central to his writing.
From a letter to the Houghton Mifflin Co., 30 June 1955:
Quote:
'Middle-earth', by the way, is not a name of a never-never land without relation to the world we live in (like the Mercury of Eddison). It is just a use of Middle English middel-erde (or erthe), altered from Old English Middangeard: the name for the inhabited lands of Men 'between the seas'. And though I have not attempted to relate the shape of the mountains and land-masses to what geologists may say or surmise about the nearer past, imaginatively this 'history' is supposed to take place in a period of the actual Old World of this planet.
From his notes on W.H. Auden's review of The Return of the King, 1956:
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I am historically minded. Middle-earth is not an imaginary world. ... The theatre of my tale is this earth, the one in which we now live, but the historical period is imaginary. ... Mine is not an 'imaginary' world, but an imaginary historical moment on 'Middle-earth' – which is our habitation.
From a letter to Rhona Beare, 14 October 1958:
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I have, I suppose, constructed an imaginary time, but kept my feet on my own mother-earth for [i]place[/]. I prefer that to the contemporary mode of seeking remote globes in 'space'. However curious, they are alien, and not lovable with the love of blood-kin.
From a letter to Charlotte and Denis Plimmer, 8 February 1967:
Quote:
The action of the story takes place in the North-west of 'Middle-earth', equivalent in latitude to the coastlands of Europe and the north shores of the Mediterranean. But this is not a purely 'Nordic' area in any sense. If Hobbiton and Rivendell are taken (as intended) to be at about the latitude of Oxford, then Minas Tirith, 600 miles south, is at about the latitude of Florence. The Mouths of Anduin and the ancient city of Pelargir are at about the latitude of ancient Troy.
[ April 07, 2002: Message edited by: Bruce MacCulloch ]

[ April 16, 2002: Message edited by: Bruce MacCulloch ]
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Old 04-07-2002, 04:35 PM   #7
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Wow, I didn't know I was right- or somewhere clsoe to right!
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Old 04-08-2002, 05:54 AM   #8
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Silmaril

*Nods* Okay, I get it more now.

*Blushes* I kind of ignored the chapter about the Rings of Power in The Silmarillion. Maybe I should read it...
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Old 04-14-2002, 06:25 AM   #9
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Sting

I agree with Bruce...and there's (as far as I know) one other letter where he compares his legendary and historical things with those of Earth itself. For example: Numenor was compared with and made by the story of Atlantis.

This letter is the letter to Milton Waldman, 1951. It is fully told in the Silmarillion, edition: 1999. From page x to xxix. Quiet a letter. [img]smilies/wink.gif[/img]
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Old 04-14-2002, 07:15 PM   #10
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I agree with Bruce
LOL!!
What is there to agree with? All I did was quote Professor Tolkien - it isn't me you're agreeing with.
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Old 04-15-2002, 04:02 PM   #11
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JRRT's letter already quoted by Bruce:
Quote:
The action of the story takes place in the North-west of 'Middle-earth', equivalent in latitude to the coastlands of Europe and the north shores of the Mediterranean. But this is not a purely 'Nordic' area in any sense. If Hobbiton and Rivendell are taken (as intended) to be at about the latitude of Oxford, then Minas Tirith, 600 miles south, is at about the latitude of Florence. The Mouths of Anduin and the ancient city of Pelargir are at about the latitude of ancient Troy.
I have yet to read the letters (kinda long) but I had already thought of the analogies between M-E & Europe. And appearantly, Greece could very well be Gondor. Indeed, Atlantis was originally a Greek myth, and Gondor was the realm in exile of Numenor/Atlantis. I always believed I was a Dunadan!

If we expand this a bit, America would be Aman, Russia Rhun, and Middle East the Near Harad!
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Old 04-15-2002, 05:49 PM   #12
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Ring

The Lord of the Rings always reminded me of King Auther type stories. Where almost all evidence of it existing is lost. I have yet to read the Sil so my opinion is only guesses.

I never got the elf thing either. Because even though Galadriel and alot of elves left ME after the Third age Legolas and alot of other elves remained. Does that mean Legolas was fading? By that I mean were his 'elven talents' becoming less sharp or somthing?

I never could understand the power of the rings either. As far as the one ring went it just made people invisible and then made them ugly corupted wreches. But how did it aid anyone in battle? In the movie Sauron was able to toss people around. I don't get it.
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Old 04-16-2002, 02:28 PM   #13
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Legolas did leave M-E, about 150 years after the end of the Third Age.

And Sauron was the Dark Lord, his powers were immense and were fueled even more by the Ring. There's no physical explanation to it. The Ring is witchcraft.
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Old 04-17-2002, 09:39 AM   #14
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Didn't Legolas leave together with Gimli ? Or am i mistaking?
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Old 04-17-2002, 01:34 PM   #15
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Yes, Legolas did leave with Gimli from Middle-Earth to Tol Eressea.
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Old 04-21-2002, 06:47 AM   #16
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As far as i can remember no where does it state for fact that Gimli travelled over the sea with Legolas!
In the Appendix B in 1541 it says

"Then Legolas built a grey ship in Ithilean, and sailed down Anduin and so over the sea; and with him it is said, went Gimli the Dwarf."

But if he actually did sail into the west which i doubt he did, why should he be allowed, i mean mortal men are forbidden to go, so why is a Dwarf permitted to???
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Old 04-24-2002, 04:14 PM   #17
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the particular dwarf was able to go, i think, because he was in the quest to destroy sauron.
i have another question sort of under this topic, so i'll just post it here. in the silmarillian it speaks of the end of the world when the elves and such will return. when every thing is peachy and everyone is happy. anyone have any idea as to when this might be?
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Old 04-24-2002, 05:27 PM   #18
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Not this week I'm afraid. The Elves wouldn't much appreciate the turmoil in the Middle East. [img]smilies/rolleyes.gif[/img]
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