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Old 06-28-2005, 05:01 PM   #1
swiftshadowofutumno
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Earendil a Man? Or Aragorn as King of Arnor?

Hi there everyone! Since this is my first new thread here I thought I'd introduce myself. I'm Craig, 19, from the UK. I particularly love the fables in the Sil (and UT), and though I haven't yet allowed myself the sublime pleasure of devouring Letters and the Histories, I enjoy thoroughly reading the posts on here containing passages from them! I'd also like to thank those who have rated me and said such nice things in welcome

Anyway, to the point at last. I havent found anything pertaining to this particular topic on the Barrowdowns before so please forgive me if I've missed it.

"The hobbits did not understand his words, but as he spoke they had a vision as it were of a great expanse of years behind them, like a vast shadowy plain over which there strode shapes of Men, tall and grim with bright swords, and last there came one with a star on his brow."
- FotR, pg.143
(That is the vision of Frodo, Sam, Pippin and Merry as Tom Bombadil speaks to them of the Men of Westernesse.)

The hobbits were obviously witnessing the unbroken line of kings stretching from even the fore-fathers, first kings of Numenor, through the Elendili, to the present descendants of Isildur. Yet to me, it seem ambiguous as regards which direction that timeline is flowing.

Earendil wore the Silmaril upon his brow as he soared the sky. Aragorn wore the Elendilmir on his brow when he became King of Arnor. But Earendil is the more famed for the light on his brow - the one renown for it - and Earendil is assuredly the ultimate father of the royal line of Numenor.

But for what reasons would the Professor place a Half-elf who chose to be of Elven fate in a line of "Men"? The change in fea ought be complete - Earendil is no Man. Besides, it would be the very line of descent working in reverse for this to be so - ancestors borrowing their blood from their descendants, so to speak. Yet the idea still remains vaguely feasible.

But our only choice seems to be Aragorn. He comes last in the line, which makes more sense. Certainly the description, "tall and grim with bright swords", seems to befit our Strider much more than Earendil the Mariner (who need not appear on the list at all).

This is what I wanted to touch on, really. Why choose the striking identifying feature of Earendil (who could feasibly be at the end of the line) to vaguely pronounce the identity of Aragorn (who also is last of the line - until Eldarion of course!)?

The only reason I can pick out is that the hobbits are travelling through Arnor at the time, technically - which would correlate with the jewel being bound to Aragorn's brow when he ascended the throne there.

But still - for what reasons did the Professor use the word "star"? Surely Earendil was the only character ever to literally wear a star upon the brow?

I leave it open: Who is the one who came last who had a star upon his brow? Hopefully one of the geniuses here can answer the question for me
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Old 06-28-2005, 06:31 PM   #2
Firefoot
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Welcome to the Downs, swiftshadow!

Aragorn did in fact wear the silver star of Elendil on his brow:
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But before all went Aragorn with the Flame of the West, Andúril like a new fire kindled, Narsil re-forged as deadly as of old, and upon his brow was the Star of Elendil.
-RotK, Book 5, Chapter VI, The Battle of Pelennor Fields

So it didn't mean a literal star, as in Eärendil's case. The figure with a star on his brow is meant to refer to Aragorn.
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The hobbits were obviously witnessing the unbroken line of kings stretching from even the fore-fathers, first kings of Numenor, through the Elendili, to the present descendants of Isildur.
This is an interesting statement. It had never occurred to me that the figures might be the line of kings; I had always thought that they were seeing the shadowy shapes of the Dúnedain - this description of grim men with bright swords befits them well. Though now that I think about it, it would most sense for it to possibly be neither, precisely: perhaps it is the line of the Chieftains of the Dúnedain (since Tom was, after all, talking about the Dúnedain in particular), which would explain why Aragorn came last.
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Old 06-28-2005, 08:13 PM   #3
swiftshadowofutumno
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Ahh yes, Firefoot , that would make sense! Perhaps my own internal allusion to similarities with Earendil clouded my judgment a little

Was through the devices of Bombadil that they came to have such an accurate vision - a true and proper foresight of things to come? Or through something about their own hobbit-natures when exposed to his encapsulating words?

I personally dont feel it to be unusual for Frodo on his own to have such moments, though in the House of Bombadil it seems much of the lore of Middle-earth was translated in tale by Bombadil for the ears of all four hobbits. Perhaps it was just down to the magic of ol' Tom.
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Old 06-28-2005, 10:20 PM   #4
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I personally dont feel it to be unusual for Frodo on his own to have such moments, though in the House of Bombadil it seems much of the lore of Middle-earth was translated in tale by Bombadil for the ears of all four hobbits. Perhaps it was just down to the magic of ol' Tom.
Probably some combination of both I should think.
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Old 06-29-2005, 03:32 AM   #5
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White Tree Two arguments in favor or Earendil.

Welcome Swiftshadow.

Although I have little to add to your thought-provoking topic, I thought I'd post in support of your idea that the hobbits were indeed briefly understanding (if only in part) Aragorn's true lineage. I had always read this quote to mean that, although Firefoot's glimpses of other Dunedain is also plausible.

Also, even though Earendil ultimately chose to remain with the Firstborn, I don't see any problem placing him at the end of this particular line. Aragorn's relation to the Mariner is important to his claim to the kingship. It is his descent from Earendil by Elros and the line of Numenor that gives him claim to the Kingship of the Numenoreans in Exile, explains his long life, his fostering in Rivendell, and other important personal details.

Drawing the parallel between Aragorn and Earendil also serves as a mirror for Aragorn's relationship with Arwen. Both marriages were composed of two parties with mixed blood (Earendil the son of Idril and Tuor, Elwing the daughter of Dior whose father was Beren; Aragorn with distant elven heritage, Arwen the daughter of Elrond Halfelven). Even though both couples have less than 'pure' bloodlines they are each considered key unions between men and elves (without Elwing's influence Earendil would probably have chosen mortality). A connection with Earendil, Aragorn and Arwen's mutual forebear, also points out the healed division between Elrond's and Elros's children (a point which is somehow bittersweet in my mind).

So, to sum up, I find Earendil an appropriate choice for the end of the lineage even though he is not technically a Man. Plus I'm defending my preconceived notion on the subject.

Finis.
Sophia
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Old 06-29-2005, 10:30 AM   #6
swiftshadowofutumno
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Thank you, Sophia .

I wholeheartedly agree with your thoughts on the inclusion of Earendil in the line, personally. He seemed to me much more of a Man than an Elf, always, even after his fate had been decided. However, would the Professor have done this? - and for what reasons? Those questions really play on my mind, especially considering the ambiguity with Aragorn.

In a fashion I cannot help but believe that Tolkien deliberately made it appear so ambiguous; hinting at shades of the future, while leaving the impression of ages past. This would increase the wonder and suspense of the reader when later reading about Aragorn, having those hints at his future - while making also the tales of Earendil that much more wonderful when the reader comes to the Sil.
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