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Old 04-20-2020, 01:34 PM   #1
Urwen
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Aw, I said I liked your Elmo theory and received no response....
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Old 04-20-2020, 03:05 PM   #2
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Aw, I said I liked your Elmo theory and received no response....
Oh! Sorry, I'd responded in my head... I wandered off wondering if the connection worked any better in the Runes of Gondolin. After all, 'mole' is an English word.

... I wonder if Tolkien ever made a word for 'mole'.

...

-- oh ye Valar, he did, and it's perfect. The Gnomish (=Sindarin, roughly) word for the mole is...

... DOLMEG.

Theory confirmed, right?

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Old 04-20-2020, 03:10 PM   #3
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*jots down notes* You just gave me the idea for a new password.
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Old 04-20-2020, 05:27 PM   #4
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Tolkien

It's not crazy exactly, nor a theory, per se, but as someone raised on the published Silmarillion, where Gil-galad is a Fingolfinian, I've always been somewhat dismayed that Tolkien's final thought on the subject made him Orodreth's son (and in the same text pushing Orodreth down a generation!) But the very same section of HoME XII provided a way out, had Tolkien but thought to take it.

Thus, my [completely illicit and unsupported] headcanon that Gil-galad was Arakano/Argon's son--Tolkien's single text about Fingolfin's youngest son says that Arakano (in Sindarin, Argon) perished just after crossing the Helcaraxë.

Gil-galad being his young son would have kept him a member of the House of Fingolfin, keeps him in Idril/Maeglin (and the late version of Orodreth/early version of Finduilas)'s generation. This makes the association with Fingon make sense in the context of Fingon's perduring bachelorhood (he could well have been fostered by his eldest uncle until his coming of age), and completely allows the retention of the idea that he might have been sent away to Círdan at the Havens, which never made as much sense to me as a prince of Nargothrond as it does a prince of Hithlum--making him the son of Orodreth seemed to imply Gil-galad's First Age history needed a rewrite.

This MIGHT make him a touch older than the implications--though no older than his first cousin, Idril, who was also a child during the Helcaraxë. If he's a bit younger than her (maybe conceived on the shores of Middle-earth days before his father perished), then his coming into prominence around the time of the Fall of Gondolin doesn't jar much with Idril's prominence really coming in the short time before that.

And there are other reasons he could have been sent away than simple youth! Perhaps his mother had a premonition (those are always popular) or perhaps he was sent to escort his mother to Círdan and then it was never safe to return.

But, again--complete fanfiction. Other than his (BRIEF!) dalliance with the idea that Gil-galad was Fingon's son, which CT thinks he was mistaken to incorporate into the published Silm, JRRT generally associated him with the Finarfinians. I just like my headcanon better.
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Old 04-21-2020, 09:18 AM   #5
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I like that, Formendacil. In part, I like it because it makes the Noldor at least a little less sexist! Tolkien may have asserted that "in all things neri and nissi were alike", but in practice his later writings mean Idril's claim to the High Kingship gets passed over for her grandfather's younger brother's great-grandson! Putting Gil-Galad (back) into the Fingolfin side means at least we can assume some sort of males-first inheritance, rather than straight up males-only.

Also it gives poor Noblegas an actual purpose in the story, rather than showing up just to die. ^_^ Now, if I was going to dig even deeper into this fanon, I might propose that when Fingon sent his nephew off to the south, he could have asked his aunt Lalwen to look after him. That would give her a story purpose too, and give Gil-Galad's claim the legitimacy of 'Fingolfin's sister says I'm king'. Potentially a very useful card to play when Turgon's daughter shows up - not to mention the possibility that Finarfin's warlike daughter could wander in at any moment!

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Old 04-21-2020, 12:57 PM   #6
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True enough; but I think T really wanted G-G to be a Finarfinian, more "noble" than the headstrong Finfolfinian house, and more closely connected to his favorite Elves Galadriel and Finrod.

----------------------------

I don't find it especially irrational that the Exiled Noldor, immigrating straight into a war, would practice some sort of male-preference succession. That was after all the reasoning behind the Salic Law in the first place.
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Old 04-21-2020, 01:09 PM   #7
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Also it gives poor Noblegas an actual purpose in the story, rather than showing up just to die. ^_^ Now, if I was going to dig even deeper into this fanon, I might propose that when Fingon sent his nephew off to the south, he could have asked his aunt Lalwen to look after him. That would give her a story purpose too, and give Gil-Galad's claim the legitimacy of 'Fingolfin's sister says I'm king'. Potentially a very useful card to play when Turgon's daughter shows up - not to mention the possibility that Finarfin's warlike daughter could wander in at any moment!
The Lalwen addition is a nice touch--but say not "Fingolfin's sister," say rather, "Finwë's daughter." And in an inheritance standoff between Finwë's eldest (living, anyway) granddaughter and eldest great-granddaughter, his eldest daughter might well have something to say! And we do know, from what little we know of her, that she was fond of Fingolfin AND could still have been alive after the Fall of Gondolin. Perhaps, out of fondness for his memory, she is the one who asserts "Fingolfinians First."

After all, this was in question as early as Fingolfin's death--Fingon doesn't become High King automatically so much as Maedhros cements that he should be High King. Turgon's inheritance comes with the Nirnaeth and he's in hiding, but no one else claims it.

And looking AHEAD, there is a text (is it "Of the Rings of Power and the Third Age"? I forget where... might be UT somewhere) that says that Elrond was offered the High Kingship after Gil-galad died. Granted, Elrond turned it down--which could be humility as much as politics, but it definitely points to a precedent about "the descendants of Fingolfin" and this is not a detail that makes as much sense if Gil-galad was a Finarfinian. True, either way it COULD be that Galadriel is being passed over for not being male, but that doesn't make as much sense if Elrond can inherit through Idril. Even if male inheritance is the preference, Elrond being offered the crown clearly means that he could inherit through Idril--or, at least, that at the start of the Third Age it wasn't considered important enough among the surviving Noldor to impede him taking the throne. And if they were willing to change the rules to allow inheritance through the female line to a cultural half-Sinda, foster-child of Maglor, part-Man it seems greatly unlikely they wouldn't have bent the rules for Gil-galad's great-aunt-and-Finwë's-only-extant-grandchild (because she'd have been his great-aunt if he were a Finarfinian).

But if there was a marked preference for males of Fingolfin's line, it makes more sense to me that the offer was made to Elrond and then left in abeyance when he declined.
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Old 04-21-2020, 01:41 PM   #8
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There certainly is historical precedent for semi-Salic succession, i.e. that a claim could pass through a female, but the female herself could not claim it.

Of course, one could also view Noldorin succession as not being based on primogeniture at all, but rather assigning the High Kingship to the eldest surviving male member of the House of Finwe.* (Elrond is rather a special case, because he was not just descended from Turgon but was also, with his brother, the only living descendant of Thingol).

*Not counting the Feanorians, of course
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