Why did Frodo feel he had to leave Middle Earth at the of ROTK?

[Lotrelf]

Originally Posted by Inziladun

The darkness wasn't permanent, though. It left no lasting damage in the Blessed Realm.

One final question- What about the Trees, did they ever recover? If not, how can the effects of Morgoth's darkness be said temporary?

Another question just popped in: In The Silmarillion, at one point, Professor says that whenever Elves were to give any message or something by Valar they were given dreams or visions. In LotR, Frodo often sees visions or dreams. His Elvish nature is also the reason he leaves for the Undying Lands. Is there any connection?

[Zigûr]

Originally Posted by Lotrelf

One final question- What about the Trees, did they ever recover? If not, how can the effects of Morgoth's darkness be said temporary?

The Trees never recovered. After Yavanna retrieved the fruit and flower which would become the Sun and Moon, "then the Trees died, and their lifeless stems stand yet in Valinor, a memorial of vanished joy."

The reason we don't consider Aman to be Marred like the rest of Arda is because unlike the rest of Arda the matter of Aman is not combined with Morgoth's spirit, something he did in Middle-earth. So the Trees were destroyed, but they and the land at large were not actually corrupted.

[Lotrelf]

Originally Posted by Zig�0‹4r

The reason we don't consider Aman to be Marred like the rest of Arda is because unlike the rest of Arda the matter of Aman is not combined with Morgoth's spirit, something he did in Middle-earth.

Would you please elaborate explaining this?

So the Trees were destroyed, but they and the land at large were not actually corrupted.

Is it also because the Fruits of the Trees covered the entire Arda with their light- night and day, and even Morgoth feared them.?