Book of lost tales (part 1) help

[Gazing]

Hello, Galin, some of my best learning experiences have come about as the result of "Quibbling." LOL.

I'm going through the indices of BOLT-1 and BOLT-2, "fine-combing" the material with a particular eye toward the Earendel mythos, it is a complex matter made even more difficult by the sometimes notational nature of Tolkiens own phrases, where an "easily elucidated," single and precise meaning is not to be found.

The example you proffer is quite apropos:Then Eriol said:

"'Now these are tidings sad and yet good to hear, and I remember me of certain words my father spake in my early boyhood. It had long, said he, been a tradition in our kindred that one of our father's fathers would speak of a fair house and magic gardens, ... and these things he said he had seen and heard as a child, as if a longing half-expressed for unknown things dwelt within him; and 'tis said that he died among rocks on a lonely coast on a night of storm -- and moreover that most of his children and their children since have been of a restless mind -- and methinks I know now the truth of the matter." (BOLT-1, p. 20 hd bk ver)

To which person does the long string of "he s" pertain? Depending upon my momentary bent of interpretation it could refer to Eriol's father, or could refer to an earlier ancestor, as the tale is related by Eriol's father.

I am thinking now that "chronology" is the key to this issue: when was The Cottage of Lost Play" written, and when do we find the first indisputable evidence of Earendel/ Earendil as something other than a human, mortal Man mariner?

Unfortunately, there is a good deal of confusion surrounding the BOLT Tales regarding the individual times of their composition, so we cannot simply assume that later chapters in the narrative sequence were actually written in the order in which they appear. Nor can we be certain of the dates of revision of any given chapter. The "Tale of Earendel," appears quite late in the BOLT text (BOLT-2, pp254 ff, pap ver) but, it is prefigured in "The Fall of Gondolin," (BOLT-2, pp 146 ff). Here we have a problem, because, according to Chris Tolkien, Scull and Hammond, Michael Drout (Ency.) and even JRRT himself, Letter #297) this Tale, "The Fall of Gondolin," was composed long before most of the BOLT material. JRRT suggests, in a Letter from 1967, 50 years after, that "The Fall of Gondolin" came before the rest of the Tales. Here, Chris Tolkien, Scull and Hammond, Michael Drout seem to think that "The Cottage of Lost Play" was still written first of all, and being an introductory chapter, rather than a full Tale, it simply slipped JRRT's mind.

I was initially led to considering this issue, the potential mortal Man nature of the original Earendel, as it made no sense to place an Elf, a Fay, a Faery, or Fairy into the ancient form of an Imran -- the literary device of a Mortal Man becoming enamoured of the "Other World" of Faerie, and then setting out upon a maritime venture seeking to actually find that realm. Tolkien's Eriol Tale, his poem "Loony," (later "The Sea Bell"), are "proper" examples of the Imram. JRRT considered this topic minutely and even wrote his own version of an Imram based on St. Brendan's voyages.

So, how does Earendel morph into an Elven character making the same kind of perilous journey to the "Other World" of Faerie, an Imram? I see here, in the 1910 - 1917 period of Tolkien's life, an attempt to make sense of the Old English poem, sometimes attributed to Cynewulf (c. 750 - 825 CE):

"Eala Earendel engla* beorhtast ofer middangeard monnum sended.
Hail Earendel, brightest of angels, Above Middle-earth sent unto men."

JRT was quite aware that the original meaning of the Greek-based term "angel" is "messenger" and could refer to heavenly beings and mere mortals equally.

I think, in "The Cottage of Lost Play," that JRRT was initially interpreting the Earendel of this Old English poem in the light of the Imram device. In which case, Earendel would have to be a Mortal Man. So far, I must admit, I have a tenuous and troubled line of connections here that I am "trying," -- perhaps the whole web will collapse of its own weight? We'll see.

For now, I'm trying to establish the first incontrovertible evidence for Earendel's Elven (half-Elven) nature, the first instance of the use of a Silmaril connected with Earendel, and the first mention of a definite "salvific/ messenger" function for Earendel, the half-elven who acts as spokesperson for both kindreds (Elf and Man) in the attempt to persuade the Valar to intervene directly in the course of Middle-earth history. The fully evolved Earendil, (the change in spelling marks the later, fully evolved character) found in the pages of the Silmarillion, seems to represent quite an alteration in the old Imram form. Earendil, in the latter work, is no longer a Fay-haunted mortal Man trying to reach (for his personal "salvation") the unobtainable Fairy Realm, he is instead, a half-Elven character classed along with the rebellious Noldor, and thus denied entry into the western "Other World" of Faerie.

Thanks for the great "Quibbling," Galin!

[Galin]

Concerning Earendel: looking back at the early poetry (and related material): in a short prose preface to The Shores of Faery and in the outline associated with The Bidding of the Minstrel, Christopher Tolkien notes that: '... Earendil was conceived to be an old man when he journeyed into the Firmament' (Tale of Earendil, BLT II)

Also, I note an earlier reading with respect to a passage in The Cottage of Lost Play (note 5 to CLP): 'shall it be of Earendel the wanderer, who alone of the sons of Men has had great traffic with the Valar and Elves, who alone of their kindred has seen beyond Taniquetil, even he who sails for ever in the firmament.'

Here Earendel being of Mannish heritage seems emphasized, but that said...

'... how so Earendel was the son of Tuor and Idril and 'tis said the only being that is half of the kindred of the Eldalie and half of Men. He was the greatest and first of all mariners among men and saw regions that men have not yet found nor gazed upon for all the multitude of their boats. He rideth now with Voronwe upon the winds of the firmament nor comes ever further back than Kor, else would he die like other men, so much of the mortal is in him.' JRRT, Name List To The Fall Of Gondolin

Hmmm. And do we know how Tolkien viewed the 'half-elven' at this time? I would need to investigate that further in any event, but in the Quenta Silmarillion of the mid to late 1930s at least, it's noted that all those who had a measure of mortal blood were mortal, unless other doom be granted them -- although this is quite a bit later than the BLT material, however it's interpreted.

And again, if FG was written before CLP...


With respect to what came first, CLP or FG, Hammond and Scull appear to find this matter inconclusive in my opinion, and even cite a note that might suggest Tolkien, at least at one point, considered CLP a 'tale' itself -- among other evidence of course, and again, I get the feeling there is no way to certainly tell which was written first.

Scull and Hammond have posted here (at least once that I recall) so maybe they'll correct me about that, or add some material perhaps, but knowing whether FG was written before CLP -- or basically at the same time -- or after CLP, would be notable here, if it's possible to tell.


I don't have the Drout book myself. Anyway, interesting question