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#1 | |
Maundering Mage
Join Date: Apr 2005
Location: Texas
Posts: 4,651
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So in other words the reason I would say that the curse of Hurin is more powerful is that it came because independent of anything he did to deserve such a curse. I would say the curse of the Valar is more powerful because of the sheer scope of who it covered and applied to. The problem I have in comparing them is how different they are it seems like you're comparing apples to oranges.
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“I wish it need not have happened in my time," said Frodo. "So do I," said Gandalf, "and so do all who live to see such times. But that is not for them to decide. All we have to decide is what to do with the time that is given us.” |
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#2 | |
Dead Serious
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I do not know that they are so different. They are essentially the same in what they doom, that those cursed will find all their actions turned to naught. It is not perhaps more a comparison between a Golden Delicious and a crabapple?
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I prefer history, true or feigned.
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#3 |
Maniacal Mage
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Grey Area! Grey Area!
![]() 3000th post! Wowzers!
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'But Melkor also was there, and he came to the house of Fëanor, and there he slew Finwë King of the Noldor before his doors, and spilled the first blood in the Blessed Realm; for Finwë alone had not fled from the horror of the Dark.' |
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#4 | |
Dead Serious
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Isildur's curse... Now that IS an interesting thing to add to the mix. How does the curse of a mortal man (Numenorean but still mortal) compare? It seems, if possible, even more binding than that of Morgoth or Mandos. The curse of Morgoth, at least, was broken by death. Nienor and Turin both died, and so were freed. The Doom of the Noldor was breakable by death, and rebirth in Valinor... But the Curse of Isildur? The Curse of Isildur held its victims after death, until it had what it wanted.
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I prefer history, true or feigned.
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#5 | |
Sword of Spirit
Join Date: Aug 2003
Location: Oh, I'm around.
Posts: 1,401
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I'm on a Mission from God. |
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#6 |
Wight
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: the Lepetomaine Gambling Casino For The Insane
Posts: 157
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Isildur's....curse?
That wasn't a curse, it was an agreement. Perhaps the inderect involvement of a maia made it binding.
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#7 | |
Dead Serious
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If so, I highly doubt it, since it would be to Sauron's benefit to have the Dead die and remain dead. The Istari? They weren't in Middle-Earth yet. Who were you thinking? I'll agree with you that the curse was a matter of the broken agreement, but it only came to a curse because they BROKE the agreement. Isildur didn't HAVE to curse them for breaking their oath- but he did. I wonder if the ability to curse like that wasn't tied to the Kingship of Gondor? After all, in Numenor the king was the "high priest of Eru", so to speak, the only one who could speak on Meneltarma on those great feasts. Is there some sort of spiritual inheritance- and inherited power- tied to the Kings of Gondor and Arnor related to that? Or could it possibly be, as Bergil says, tied to a Maia. But the Maia I am thinking of is Melian, Isildur's many greats- grandmother. Is this another property the line of Elros inherited, along with great healer abilities? Not sure...
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I prefer history, true or feigned.
Last edited by Formendacil; 10-29-2005 at 08:46 PM. Reason: More ideas. I really need to think longer before hitting "done"... |
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#8 | |
Sword of Spirit
Join Date: Aug 2003
Location: Oh, I'm around.
Posts: 1,401
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I'm glad you called me on that, or else I wouldn't have gone back and reread the passage. The part that really tugs at me is where it says 'if the West prove mightier than thy Black Master'. I think Isildur is basically calling on the Valar to do this and show that they are stronger than Sauron. Which of course they are; so they did.
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I'm on a Mission from God. |
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