Ch-ch-ch-ch-changes... - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Aiwendil · 11-07-2004, 07:24 PM

I usually hate it when people say this - but I think, Davem, that you may be reading too deeply into the issue (though it is indeed interesting and I'm glad you brought it up).

Yes, on face value there seems to be a rather significant difference between the two versions of the text. If the circumstances of the writing of LotR weren't known, if this were some epic from a thousand years ago one text of which gives "do" and another "need" - then no doubt it would be worth spilling a good deal of scholarly ink over the issue. It is certainly possible to read deep significance into the variation.

But consider the circumstances as we know them to be. Tolkien wrote "need" initially. At that point, such was quite clearly his intention. Then through a mere accident on Christopher's part, the word "need" was lost. In correcting Christopher's copy, Tolkien observed the grammatical lapse and filled it. Now, we may entertain three possibilities:

1. There is a significant difference between "need" and "do", and Tolkien's final intention was "do".

2. There is a significant difference, and Tolkien's intention all along was "need", "do" being a mistake.

3. There is no significant difference, at least in Tolkien's intention.

If 1 is true then not only was there apparently some quite real but otherwise wholly unknown shift in Tolkien's conception of Elves between the writing of the chapter and the correction - it was also a remarkable stroke of luck that an accidental omission made by Christopher happened to coincide perfectly with that change. This seems to me rather improbable.

If 2 is true, then we must assume that Tolkien was in quite a rush when he wrote in "do", for otherwise he surely would have noticed that the statement as it now stood was incorrect.

If 3 is true, then "do" and "need" are equally good and it is of no import whatsoever whether Tolkien was rushed or not, nor does it much matter which was finally adopted.

I am inclined to think that 1 is the least probable of those three scenarios, and consequently that "need" is indeed what ought to have been adopted in the published text.

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11-07-2004, 07:24 PM	#9
Aiwendil Late Istar Join Date: Mar 2001 Posts: 2,224	I usually hate it when people say this - but I think, Davem, that you may be reading too deeply into the issue (though it is indeed interesting and I'm glad you brought it up). Yes, on face value there seems to be a rather significant difference between the two versions of the text. If the circumstances of the writing of LotR weren't known, if this were some epic from a thousand years ago one text of which gives "do" and another "need" - then no doubt it would be worth spilling a good deal of scholarly ink over the issue. It is certainly possible to read deep significance into the variation. But consider the circumstances as we know them to be. Tolkien wrote "need" initially. At that point, such was quite clearly his intention. Then through a mere accident on Christopher's part, the word "need" was lost. In correcting Christopher's copy, Tolkien observed the grammatical lapse and filled it. Now, we may entertain three possibilities: 1. There is a significant difference between "need" and "do", and Tolkien's final intention was "do". 2. There is a significant difference, and Tolkien's intention all along was "need", "do" being a mistake. 3. There is no significant difference, at least in Tolkien's intention. If 1 is true then not only was there apparently some quite real but otherwise wholly unknown shift in Tolkien's conception of Elves between the writing of the chapter and the correction - it was also a remarkable stroke of luck that an accidental omission made by Christopher happened to coincide perfectly with that change. This seems to me rather improbable. If 2 is true, then we must assume that Tolkien was in quite a rush when he wrote in "do", for otherwise he surely would have noticed that the statement as it now stood was incorrect. If 3 is true, then "do" and "need" are equally good and it is of no import whatsoever whether Tolkien was rushed or not, nor does it much matter which was finally adopted. I am inclined to think that 1 is the least probable of those three scenarios, and consequently that "need" is indeed what ought to have been adopted in the published text.