the Valar vs. Sauron

[Earendilyon]

To me 'for that time' is 'for that time' and not 'from that time onwards'.

Edit: I had a look in Letters and found this:

From Letter 131:

Faced by this rebellion, of appalling folly and blasphemy, and also real peril (since the Númenóreans directed by Sauron could have wrought ruin in Valinor itself) the Valar lay down their delegated power and appeal to God, and receive the power and permission to deal with the situation; the old world is broken and changed.

And from Letter 156:

The Valar had no real answer to this monstrous rebellion — for the Children of God were not under their ultimate jurisdiction: they were not allowed to destroy them, or coerce them with any 'divine' display of the powers they held over the physical world. They appealed to God; and a catastrophic 'change of plan' occurred. At the moment that Arpharazôn set foot on the forbidden shore, a rift appeared: Númenor foundered and was utterly overwhelmed (....)

According to Letter 131 the Valar themselves got the power to deal with the Númenóreans, while Letter 156 is not perfectly clear on this.
Anyway, the sending of the Istari is in my opinion proof of the Valar's government of Arda. Remember, that they were bound to Arda by Eru and had to rule it while it lasted.

<font size=1 color=339966>[ 3:38 PM January 19, 2004: Message edited by: Earendilyon ]