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Old 08-25-2008, 09:37 AM   #11
littlemanpoet
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nogrod View Post
If Rohan indeed is a feudal society
Well ---- not quite. Feudalism had its beginnings in the remains of the fallen Roman Empire, and actually began in Italy. The Roman Empire was requiring such an incredible burden in taxes from small land holders that they chose to sell their land to bigger land holders, and to work the land themselves as servants of these larger land owners, who over time became strong enough to refuse the demands of the Roman Empire, which of course quickened its demise. THe upshot was that you had minor lords all over Italy, and then Europe as time went by, until the strongest lords began to be able to exact vassalage from their less strong peers.

All this to say that feudalism is not native to Anglo-Saxon culture, after which the Eorlingas are modeled. There was lordship and loyalty, but not the rigidly worked out system of lords and vassals common to the mid- and late - middle ages.

Therefore: everything that Nogrod says is true to a point - so long as we don't adhere to it too rigidly. In fact, King Eomer, by introducing a new principality called Middle Emnet, is actually heightening feudalism in Rohan. (in other words Elempi did it in spite of Tolkien )

But is the Folde in the Middle Emnet? I don't think so. I think it's in the East Emnet, which means that Eodwine would NOT be Degas' lord - it would be whoever Eomer gave that role to, having risen to kingship from it himself. Do the books say who?

Quote:
It was indeed part of the original plan (at least some of them) that one source of different plot-lines could emerge from at least some of the mightiest landowners not being too pleased with the King's presence via the Mead Hall in the area they have used to run between themselves.
Sounds good to me.
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