You say 'Faeries' & I say 'Fairies'

[drigel]

What Tolkien has done in OFS is to 'Christianise' fairystory & then claim it was 'Christian' all along. Smith is a step away from that, back to what Faery had been, but the Faery of Smith is still not the Fairie of tradition, & my question is why did he want to convince us it was?

Was it to convince us, or to show us an example of an historical authenticity? I lean towards the former... but why?

edit:

I've met some.

come on Davem - give