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#1 |
Wight
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Did Sauron have it all set up the whole time, to ruin the Shire just to spite hobbits? DId he get Saruman to go there and have his men take it over and enslave the hobbits and make them suffer? So it was the work of Sauron the entire time?
In the chapter Shadow of the Past, Gandalf says: "I believe that hitherto, he [sauron] has entirely overlooked the existence of hobbits. You should be thankful. But your safety has passed. He does not need you-he has many more useful servants- but he won't forget you again. And hobbits as miserable slaves would please him far more than hobbits happy and free. There is such thing as malice and revenge.( Fellowship of the Ring, page 48). and Frodo asks, "Revenge? Revenge for what?" and then when Sam and Frodo come back to the Shire in The Scouring of the Shire, sam says that this is worse than Mordor because they knew what it was like before it was ruined. And frodo says, "Yes this is Morder. Just one of its works. Saruman was doing its work all the time, even when he thought he was working for himself.And the same with those that Saruman tricked, like Lotho." (Return of the King, page 994.) What i really want to know is, why did Sauron want to avenge hobbits in the first place? Is it because all the ring-bearers were hobbits (Gollum, if he counts, Bilbo, Frodo)? he obviously didn't need them as slaves, but Why else would Sauron want to go out of his way to make hobbits miserable ?
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