Was Tolkien being a hypocrite? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Kronos · 02-12-2004, 03:47 AM

Was Tolkien a hypocrite in regards to his feelings towards Frodo and Gollum. He expresses many views on Gollum in his letters but in one he expresses the feeling that Gollum may not receive salvation because he ended in "wickedness".

By wickedness we have to assume that he means trying to reclaim the Ring and doing so by force.But was he being too harsh on Gollum?

He also reflects on Frodo claiming the Ring at the end and not being able to destroy it. He reflects that this did not mean that Frodo failed because the Ring's will becomes stronger as they near the place of it's making and no-one could be expected to resist at Mount Doom itself. In this way he absolves Frodo of failure and states that he had done all that he could be expected to do.

This seems a little generous when you compare it to what Gollum could be expected to do.
Gollum had born the Ring for far longer than Frodo and therefore was more corrupted by it. As he neared Mount Doom so his desire would likewise grow. In the same way as Frodo's did.
Why would we expect Gollum to be able to resist when his chances of it were probably far worse than Frodo's.

If Sam had withheld the Ring from Frodo would not Frodo have tried to reclaim it? Using all means necessary no doubt.
At the ultimate moment it seems to me that Frodo obviously desired the Ring for himself, was extremely likely to use every power at his disposal to retain it, and would attempt to slay any who attempted to withhold it from him should they get it.

Was this any different to Gollum, who had longer exposure and started out on the journey with far less chance of withstanding it than Frodo.

Can you condemn one whilst praise the other?
Should the author, as a Christian, assume that one of them would be denied salvation?

Was Tolkien favouring one and damning the other too harshly?

02-12-2004, 03:47 AM	#1
Kronos Animated Skeleton Join Date: Jan 2004 Location: England Posts: 47	Was Tolkien being a hypocrite? Was Tolkien a hypocrite in regards to his feelings towards Frodo and Gollum. He expresses many views on Gollum in his letters but in one he expresses the feeling that Gollum may not receive salvation because he ended in "wickedness". By wickedness we have to assume that he means trying to reclaim the Ring and doing so by force.But was he being too harsh on Gollum? He also reflects on Frodo claiming the Ring at the end and not being able to destroy it. He reflects that this did not mean that Frodo failed because the Ring's will becomes stronger as they near the place of it's making and no-one could be expected to resist at Mount Doom itself. In this way he absolves Frodo of failure and states that he had done all that he could be expected to do. This seems a little generous when you compare it to what Gollum could be expected to do. Gollum had born the Ring for far longer than Frodo and therefore was more corrupted by it. As he neared Mount Doom so his desire would likewise grow. In the same way as Frodo's did. Why would we expect Gollum to be able to resist when his chances of it were probably far worse than Frodo's. If Sam had withheld the Ring from Frodo would not Frodo have tried to reclaim it? Using all means necessary no doubt. At the ultimate moment it seems to me that Frodo obviously desired the Ring for himself, was extremely likely to use every power at his disposal to retain it, and would attempt to slay any who attempted to withhold it from him should they get it. Was this any different to Gollum, who had longer exposure and started out on the journey with far less chance of withstanding it than Frodo. Can you condemn one whilst praise the other? Should the author, as a Christian, assume that one of them would be denied salvation? Was Tolkien favouring one and damning the other too harshly?