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Thought I would post an Elrond quesiton in this current thread, rather than create a new one.
In the LOTR Appendix I read that the Fourth Age is considered to start upon Elrond's departure from Middle Earth, and not when the One ring is destroyed. This is unlike the Third Age which begins after Sauron is defeated.
I am curious to know how people interpret why Tolkien used Elrond specifically as the catalyst? Did he mean that the fourth age began when ALL the ring bearers departed (Elrond AND Gandalf, Galadrial, Frodo), or is the emphasis really on just Elrond?
I cannot decide why it would be on just Elrond. Unless he represented the last king of the Noldor (after Gil-galad), and his departure really represented the passing of the torch to Men.
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