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Haunting Spirit
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re: inheritance
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Quothe Aiwendil:
A canon Silm. will have to explain why neither Celebrimbor nor Galadriel got a chance. Some have suggested that Galadriel could have been high queen, but did not wish it; this I find hard to reconcile with her portrayal elsewhere. The (perhaps more obvious) explanation that the High Kingship could only pass to a male is defeated by Tolkien's statement about the Neri and Nissi of the Eldar being equal.
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I am one of those who hold that the High Kingship could only pass to a male. I dont have MR handy but the essay 'Laws and Customs of the Eldar', while mentioning the 'equality' of the Neri and Nissi, also mentions something to the effect that they do have differing interests and aptitudes (women tend to be better healers, men tend to be the warriors and craftmasters). It also mentions that there are various customs which differing among the various Eldarin branches. It is possible that the High Kingship was considered as also a military position and this could tend to preclude the Nissi. It is also not unlikely that this was simply considered the custom.
One thing that could be noted is that when Turgon died and Gil-galad became High King, Galadriel was seemingly no longer in Beleriand (she mentions in LotR having passed over the mountains before the fall of Nargothrond and Gondolin).
Note also that if it was 'possible' for women to inherit the High Kingship then Idril Celebrindal was still present and the only child of Turgon the previous High King.
Again may simply be the accepted custom among the Noldor that women did not inherit.
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Further, why didn't it go to Celebrimbor? When Maedhros gave up the kingship to Fingolfin, there was no suggestion that this barred the Feanorians from ever regaining it. The kingship remained in the House of Fingolfin only because it was then passing to the closest descendant or relative; but with all the descendants of Fingolfin dead (except Elrond and Elros), it seems that Celebrimbor would have had just as good a claim as Gil-Galad, if not better (he was of an elder generation from from an elder branch of the family.)
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Actually, I think it is suggested. The House of Feanor was called the 'Dispossessed' because they lost their rights to inherit both in Elende and Endor. When Gil-galad inherited there were still several male descendants of Finwe extant, Maedhros, Maglor, Celebrimbor and Earendil. The first three were Feanorians and thus 'Dispossessed'. Earendil was only seven. (Elrond and Elros had yet to be born).
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If he were the son of Fingon, this would make more sense (the question then would be why it went Fingon -Turgon - Gil-Galad instead of just Fingon - Gil-Galad.) However, Tolkien seems to have pretty firmly rejected that genealogy. Do you think Tolkien had a reason for wanting to make him a Finarfinian?
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Gil-galad's parantage shifted several times. In all of these he became High King in over any of the Feanorians (except when he was a Feanorian<img src=wink.gif ALT="
"> ). He also became High King over any of the others. I think the reason Turgon became High King over Gil-galad even when Gil-galad was Fingon's son (and even when Fingon had other children) is because he was the eldest (male) of the House of Finwe. This is what Maedhros expressed when he relinquished his claim in favour of Fingolfin's claim saying that the Kingship would go by right to Fingolfin since he was the eldest of the House. Some have supposed that Gil-galad being made a Finarfinian could give him more legitimacy to the being 'King of the Eldar' (or however it was termed in LotR, Idont have my books here) as he ruled over many Sindar in the Second Age as well.
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