Well, to give the question its own post . . . again, Christopher Tolkien, Unfinished Tales, note 20, The History of Galadriel and Celeborn:
Quote:
"Before the revised edition of The Lord of the Rings was published in 1966 my father changed Finrod to Finarfin, while his son Felagund, previously called Inglor Felagund, became Finrod Felagund. Two passages in the Appendices B and F were accordingly emended for the revised edition -- It is noteworthy that Orodreth
. . ."
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So here, emended for the revised edition, which I took to mean the revised edition of the first sentence. Also:
Quote:
"The names Fingolfin and Finarfin are thus spelt in B, but in A Fingolphin and Finarphin (see. p. 265 note 10). In the Second Edition of The Lord of the Rings (1966) Finarphin was spelled thus, later changed on my suggestion to Finarfin (Appendix F, Of the Elves)."
Christopher Tolkien, commentary, The Later Quenta Silmarillion (II), OfThe Silmarils and the Unrest of the Noldor
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And so I thought that Finrod had still been altered by Tolkien himself for the second edition, although to Finarphin. And now that I'm paying more attention to what Hammond and Scull wrote in their Reader's Guide to The Lord of the Rings
. . .
Quote:
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As first published, "Finarfin" read "Finrod". In the Allen & Unwin three-volume paperback edition (1974) "Finrod" was changed to "Finarphir" (first and second printing), then to "Finarphin" (third printing, 1975), and finally "Finarfin" (fourth printing, 1976), as Christopher Tolkien determined the name to be used in The Silmarillion (1977)."
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So my question is . . . what? Or am I missing something? Or . . . huh?
