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Originally Posted by Gorthaur the Cruel
I can understand Sauron learning the location of Rivendell because of the 2nd Age war thing. But of Lothlorien, how can he know when Galadriel weaved some sort of enchantment on her land? & I can't imagine Sauron finding through Osanwe since he lacked the One Ring or maybe you meant via Palantir through Saruman? I've read a passage somewhere in the UT in the chapter of Celebron & Galadriel that Sauron had already perceived Galadriel to be his chief adversary during the crafting of the Mirdain & after the rings were dispatched... he only suspected that she would be the bearer of one of the Three. When he ransacked Eregion, he was thinking of Lorinand but decided it can wait. But other than that... Saruman could've told Sauron because obviously he guessed the right locations.
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I have to disagree. Sauron knew that there was an Elven kingdom buried in the Golden Wood. He had to. If the common people of Rohan knew about the "Enchantress" in the Golden Wood, and had known so since they had passed down to Calenardhon for the first time, then surely Sauron, with his enormous web of servants and spies, would have known there was an Elven kingdom. And it wouldn't have taken much guessing to figure out just who the sorceress was.
As for whether or not he knew where the Rings were, he must have guessed they were with the Elves. He might have guessed that there was one in any of the following places: Mithlond, Rivendell, Mirkwood, and Lorien. Is there reason to believe that he suspected one was with the Istari? I think not. Saruman, he knew, obviously didn't have one. And if Aragorn could shield his mind from Sauron, surely a fellow Maia could have kept some information hidden (information like how much more respected Gandalf was by Galadriel, Elrond, and Cirdan).
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Originally Posted by Gorthaur the Cruel
Btw...
1.) When Gandalf revealed to the Balrog that he was the weilder of the flame of Arnor, why the hell would the Balrog care since it did not know about the elven rings & it was obviously greater than it.
2.) "Weilder of the flame of Arnor." Why does this imply that he was reffering to Narya? Is there any historical background of this "flame of Arnor"? I've never heard of such.
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For the record, it was the Flame of ANOR, nor ARNOR. The Flame of the Sun (or of light in general), not the Flame of the Royal Kingdom.
I don't see that this necessarily refers to Narya. Remember that Gandalf also calls the Balrog "Flame of Udun" (Flame of Darkness, more or less). This title/power of the Balrog's would seem to be tied to his power as a vassal of Morgoth. In the same way, Gandalf's parallel (and superior?) power of the Flame of Anor, would be tied to his power as the vassal of Manwe, and the forces of goodness.
Another thought: if Gandalf had used Narya, surely Frodo would have felt it?