[William Cloud Hicklin]

Okay, Noldorin High-kingship.

Originally of course Finwe. With the rebellion this became Feanor/Fingolfin as rivals in Beleriand, Finarfin in Valinor. Feanor dies and Maedhros resigns his claim. Ergo Fingolfin, undisputed heavyweight high-kingship champion of Middle-earth.


Thus,

Fingolfin
Fingon (elder son)
Turgon (younger brother)
Earendil (grandson; never a "king", but ruled the surviving remnant; interesting in that his claim passed through Idril, who was still alive but never "queen;" nor was Tuor a ruler of the Elves.)
=Elwing (Thingol's heiress in the female, and only, line)
Gil-galad(!!!)

All versions agree that the next up was Gil-Galad, whatever his parentage. Note that Elrond (and Elros) were passed over (why?)

If we were to accept the '77 version as canon, GG being Fingon's son, then we have a succession which is difficult to make sense of. Straight primogeniture is right out, because GG would have come before his uncle Turgon. If the "eldest male" is the rule, surely GG would have come before Earendil?

If we take the HME version as canon, which apparently was JRRT's real intent, then Finarfin's house comes into play and it makes a bit more sense: Fingolfin to Fingon to Turgon to Earendil and then, Fingolfin's line being extinct in ME (the Peredhil being disqualified), then the crown falls to the sole surviving member of the junior branch. Male member, needless to say; this was clearly a semi-Salic succession (which would imply that Amroth would have been next in line after GG had T not rejected his being the son of C&G). There is an implication that either Elessar (by marriage) or Eldarion after him became de jure High King, as living male descendant of Finarfin's house (through great-grandma Galadriel), but there is no suggestion that Elrond's sons had any claim... why?