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Originally Posted by Raynor
The impression that I have from this letter is that Saruman's Voice is simply a corruption of something common/natural - logic argumentation (although used with a _lot_ of skill).
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I beg to differ with Boromir, but Saruman's Voice isn't from the Enemy. Neither Morgoth nor Sauron gave Saruman that skill; maybe it came from his being a Maia/Istari. And in lieu with Raynor, I agree that the Voice is a natural skill of Saruman's and that he may choose (either conciously or unconciously) to either use it for evil or for good.
Which makes me ask these: Is Saruman's turning to evil done unconciously or not? Did his envy of Gandalf pervert him without his knowing or noticing it--and is his wisdom not that great for him to detect he was becoming evil?
