[cellurdur]

Originally Posted by jallanite

Gandalf was wearing one of the Elven rings, Narya, the Ring of Fire, given to him by Círdan when Gandalf first came to Middle-earth. It didn’t make him automatically invisible. Another Elven ring was worn by Galadriel, who was not automatically made invisible by it. The third Elven ring was worn by Elrond, who also was not automatically made invisible by it. Nor are do any of these three apparently fear being eventually turned into wraiths because of wearing an Elven-ring.

The first half of the Milton Waldmam letter appears in the “Preface to the Second Edition” in all printings of The Silmarillion since 1999 and so is easily found. It says, in part:

And finally they [the rings partly created by Sauron] had other powers, more directly derived from Sauron (‘the Necromancer’: so he is called as he cast a fleeting shadow and presage on the pages of The Hobbit): such a rendering invisible the material body, and making things of the invisible world visible

Gandalf must be imagined to have well known about the powers of the Elven rings compared to those Rings of Power in which Sauron had a hand. That Gandalf appears to confuse the two types of rings in his explication to Frodo appears to me to be likely a confusion introduced by Tolkien who does not properly distinguish them in the words he puts into Gandàlf’s mouth. Tolkien has Gandalf claim that he believes no case of a bearer of a Great Ring of Power who freely gave up the ring to another is known, yet Gandalf himself is secretly wearing Narya at the time which was given up freely to Gandalf by Cíirdan.

Galadriel, Cirdan, Gandalf and even Elrond at the time were all immortals. Only mortals turn invisible when they wear a great ring and even then the quote has been provided showing that the 3 were alone did not confer invisibility. No mortal hands ever touched the 3. The 3 alone were different from the other 16. If the 16 Sauron stole bestowed invisibility to immortals and the One in addition, then it's understandable why Gandalf may have thought the 3 would too.

When Dior was slain his spirit would have been summoned to Mandos and would either be placed among the other Elves there or be placed among Men to be sent out of the world. That would have been the point where the Valar would have had to decide whether Dior was a mortal Man or an immortal Elf. But Tolkien does not say.

Yes, but it does not mean a decision had been made whilst he was alive and holding the Silmaril. Only when Earendil arrives does the debate begins about whether he is an Elf or Man.

I don’t recall this. Please cite the page where this is found. Note that in the published Silmarillion some Elves had already been taken by Melkor before the existence of the Elves was known to any of the Valar.

Taken by Melkor does not mean they have been killed yet. It was the case of Miriel, which really brought the topic to a head. This conversation is written after Laws and Customs. It can be found in Morgoth's ring page 361.

Here is a quote form the start.

Be hold an evil appears in Arda that we did not look for: the First born Children, whom you Thou madest immortal suffer now severance of spirit and body.

After this conversation they basically conclude that elves should have a new body created for them. Prior to Miriel it seems no elf had ever been brought back from the halls of Mandos.

Back to Dior I would imagine a similar situation had arisen. There was no definite answer as to whether Dior was mortal or not. Only with the arrival of Earendil was the matter settled.

That being said, since there was no law set out, I find it hard and unlikely that Dior would not have been given a choice. He spent all his life with the elves, married an elf and ruled an elvish kingdom. To condemn him to eternal seperation from his family, without forewarning seems unduly harsh.