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Old 12-03-2012, 06:23 PM   #3
cellurdur
Shade of Carn Dûm
 
Join Date: Dec 2012
Posts: 276
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Originally Posted by Morthoron View Post
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The great Elven rings, the Three held by the Elves and the Seven of the Dwarves, did not cause anyone to vanish. There is no support to say that the Nine Rings Sauron gave to Men made them vanish either. They eventually passed into Wraithdom, but that doesn't mean they instantly vanished once they put them on.
The 3, the 9 and the 7 were all included in the Great Rings made by the elves. The dwarves did not vanish, because of their stubborn nature. Gandalf though does strongly imply ALL of the great rings caused mortals to turn invisible.

Here is the quote.

'A mortal, Frodo, who keeps one of the Great Rings, does not die, but he does not grow or obtain more life, he merely continues, until at last every minute is a weariness. And if he often uses the Ring to make himself invisible, he fades, he becomes in the end invisible permanently, and walks in the twilight under the eye of the dark power that rules the Rings.'

From this it is fair to assume all the Great Rings caused mortals to turn invisible. If this was not the case, then the One Ring granting Frodo invisibility would have been used as evidence of it being the One and not just another of the Great Rings.
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We are only talking about the One Ring here, as that is the only one of the rings that caused anyone to vanish. As far as Earendil or Elwing putting on the One Ring, any answer would simply be conjecture. So your guess is as good as mine. Although I would like to think that Earendil would pass on putting on the One Ring.
I have provided evidence to suggest all the Great Rings caused invisibility. Earendil wielded the full power of the Elessar and the Silmaril. He seems to have greater innate power than Elrond. I agree that any answer would be conjecture, but this does not mean the conjecture is not based on reasonable evidence.

I agree though, that Earendil would likely pass on using the One Ring.
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Nowhere is it said that the Silmarils were hallowed against mortal touch. Why would they be? Mortals weren't even around when Feanor created the Silmarils, and the fact Beren held them without harm nullifies that argument; whereas Morgoth, Maedhros and Maglor all suffered from their touch. It has more to do with the worth and motives of the individual than race or mortality.
The Silmarils were hallowed by Varda against mortal and evil. Beren's case is rare exception. Morgoth was evil and after the multiple kinslayings I think it judged Maedhros and Maglor evil too or at least they would fall under the unclean category.

The quote can be found in the Silmarillion.

And Varda hallowed the Silmarils, so that therefore no mortal flesh, nor hands unclean, nor anything of evil will might touch them, but it was scorched and withered;
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Again, the Elven Ring Elrond wore did not confer invisibility.
All the great rings confer invisibility. Gandalf tells us this and logically they would have to. Or else the Wise would be very foolish indeed not to realise than Bilbo had the One Ring.

Last edited by cellurdur; 12-03-2012 at 06:33 PM.
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