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It's also the case that Tolkien didn't count Imrazor-Mithrellas as one of the three marriages between Eldar and Edain (Beren-Luthien, Tuor-Idril, Aragorn-Arwen). Whatever definition of "Eldar" he had in mind at the time he wrote the Appendices, apparently Mithrellas as a Silvan elf didn't count.
I'm frankly a little puzzled by "Imrazor the Numenorean." Why would he be singled out as 'Numenorean' from the other Dunedain of Gondor, especially 1900 years after the Downfall? And why would he have an Adunaic name, unlike all the other Men of Gondor whose names were of Sindarin or mixed Sindarin-Quenya form?
(Then there's T's plain slip, where he places an "Adrahil of Dol Amroth" in the war of 1844- over a century before Amroth ever came to Edhellond).
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The entire plot of The Lord of the Rings could be said to turn on what Sauron didn’t know, and when he didn’t know it.
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