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Old 04-21-2004, 11:09 AM   #96
The Saucepan Man
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Silmaril Warning: Imperfect and hastily forumulated allegory alert

Fordim

I'm sorry, but I don't get this Fellowship: Nazgul analogy. Why are those who are creating a text of the Silmarillion which they feel sticks as closely as possible to Tolkien's ideas and intentions analagous to the Nazgul? Yes, they are binding themselves to a particular manner of interpretation (with, in this case, a closely drawn set of interpretative "rules"), but they are doing so of their own free will and they could withdraw at any time if they felt that it wasn't right for them. In addition, a cursorary glance at the Revised Silm threads will show that there is still ample scope for discussion and interpretation, even within the confines of the interpretive rules which they have set themselves. The Nazgul had none of these luxuries. As soon as they accepted the Rings of Power, their fate was sealed and there was nothing that they could do about it. They were irreversibly bound by Sauron's "interpretation".

I have to say that I prefer Sharon's analogy:


Quote:
We are all subcreators. But perhaps those who are cognizant of the Original Music and try to incorporate its themes in their own creations are in effect following in the footsteps of the Great Creator (in this case, Tolkien himself). By contrast those who create melodies of their own which have no bearing to the original Music are merely pumping out discordant and jarring notes that are highly reminiscent of Melkor.
I don't see any problem with representing Tolkien as the Great Creator since we are talking about Eru who is himself a sub-creation.

Indeed, I would suggest a development of Sharon's analogy. Suppose we take Tolkien as Eru, the reader as the Ainur, the text of LotR as the Theme of the Music, and our interpretation of the text as Arda. Tolkien the Creator knows from the outset what will happen but the (first time) reader does not. The reader interprets the text as he reads it (sings the Music) and by the time he comes to the end, he has a complete interpretation (the creation of Arda). Most readers are bound by what is stated in the text (the Theme of the Music), but their own beliefs and experiences will shape their interpretation, just as the Ainur shaped Arda based upon the Theme of the Music. Take five different sets of Ainur and you will have five different Ardas, although each will follow the same basic pattern based upon the Theme, just as five different readers will have five different interpretations of LotR, but based upon the same pattern, namely the text. The reader who rejects what is said in the text and seeks to rewrite it as he would prefer to see it is in the position of Melkor rejecting the Theme laid out by Eru and seeking to reshape it according to his own wishes. He is free to do this, in the sense that he has free will, but it is wrong because it runs counter to the text (Eru's theme). (Hmm. Implications for Jackson's screen interpretation? Er - let's leave that aside for now.)

With me so far?

Now, let's take the materials in the Letters and the "unpublished texts", add in Bęthberry's social and political developments, and equate all of these with the Children of Eru. The Children, acting with free will, have a limited ability to change the Ainur's interpretation of Arda (the reader's interpretation of LotR), but they cannot alter the underlying Theme (the text of LotR). The Ainur's interpretation of Arda therefore changes as they encounter the Children and witness their freely willed behaviour, just as the reader's interpretation of LotR may change as he encounters and considers these secondary materials and experiences these external events.

So where does this analogy get us? Well it says to me that the reader has free will at every stage to interpret the text in the whatever manner seems most appropriate. Although that interpretation will be affected by the secondary materials and external influences, the reader is still free to accept or reject such influences if they do not resonate with him. But at all times, the reader is bound by what is said in the text itself unless he chooses (exercising free will) to act like Melkor and reject it.

OK, it's not a perfect analogy, and it will probably get shot down in flames. But it works for me, even in its imperfect state. What I would maintain, however, is that the only readers who have no free will, who truly are in the position of the Nazgul, are those who are prevented form reading the book in the first place, or who are told in no uncertain terms how they should interpret it (whether by their governemnt, their parents, their teacher, their preacher or whatever).

And just a quick word on this concept of "Eruism". I am glad, Fordim, that you got round to defining what you mean by this in your last post:


Quote:
By Eruism I mean only that sense of a providential plan within which the individual becomes heroic in M-E, without any reference whatsoever to the Catholicism that, through Tolkien, informs it.
I most certainly agree that this sense of providence is an inherent part of the tale told in LotR. It should be, as it is, as you have said, imbued within the text itself. Yes, when I first read of the events at Sammath Naur, it seemed "right" to me that Gollum should fall into the fires of Orodruin with the Ring. I am not sure that I consciously thought about it, but the sense of providence must have been there on an unconscious level at least. Otherwise, as you say, I would have felt cheated by it. My concern was that you were suggesting that the text provided clear evidence of the existence of a Supreme Being and was necessarily open to interpretation only by reference to the values of a montheistic religion. Gollum's fall could be explained in any number of ways which does not require the existence of a single Supreme Being, and still fall within the ambit of providence. But you have explained yourself now, and I think that we agree.
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