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Originally Posted by Galadriel55
Ever wonder how Gildor can be Inglorion (ie son of Finrod) when Finrod didn't have a wife?
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Inglorion, if it contains -ion 'son, descendant' (as I would suggest it does) would mean 'Son of Inglor'. Who is Inglor? As I'm sure you know, you were never supposed to know Inglor was 'once' a name of Felagund externally -- noting that Tolkien himself never published that Inglor was Felagund's name, he simply first published that
Finrod, but not Felagund... was Galadriel's father!
ahem
So you can't really wonder this unless you know the 'unpublished' background, (otherwise you could not state that Inglor was once a name for Felagund) -- and once you know the background, you realize that Inglor is only 'Finrod' in an abandoned sense, and so...
... ever wonder who Inglor is?
And you can wonder if Inglor
as Felagund had a wife at the time Tolkien wrote or published Gildor
Inglorion. I checked this out myself, and I think (IIRC) I found out that it was possible enough, for JRRT didn't always think that Inglor/Finrod had had no wife.
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Ever wonder why Fingon has to be the Lord of Hair (from fin+kano)?
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The Shibboleth of Feanor explains...
'It would have been sufficient for Fingolfin to give to his eldest son a name beginning with fin- as an echo of the ancestral name, and if this was also specially applicable it would have been approved as a good invention. In the case of Fingon it was suitable...'
So in my opinion
Findecáno would have really 'meant'
commander with an ancestral (and suitable) prefix added. If
Fingon had been a true Sindarin name it might have conveyed 'Hair-shout' rather, if interpretable at all, but in this case Fingon was just a Sindarization of his Quenya name in any event.