[Maerbenn]

Originally Posted by Raynor

To use Melkor's power is to fall to his influence.

Is that certain? How do you come to that conclusion?

Originally Posted by Raynor

If I remember correctly, the problem with Mannish magic was related to the swords - however, those swords would have been made by numenoreans - some of them had the blood of Luthien, who could give them some magic power (as with Aragorn).

So all Númenórean ‘magic’ was done by members of the Line of Elros? I suppose that idea could work, barely.

I suspect that Tolkien (in the note 'But the Númenóreans used "spells" in making swords?' referring to the statement that ‘it [magic] is not to be come by by 'lore' or spells; but is in an inherent power not possessed or attainable by Men as such’) by ‘spells’ meant something ‘learnt’. What Gandalf tells the Fellowship about spells in ‘A Journey in the Dark’ outside the West-door of Moria indicates that. Of course, it is most probably not enough to simply memorize spells to be able to use them, you have to have access to ‘power’ too.

Originally Posted by Raynor

What exactly did the normal Middle-Earth Men create or use, that would resemble magic? Nothing, as far as I know.

Well, we have Beorn and his skin-changing. And the Drúedain are also interesting; they have no Númenórean blood but according to ‘The Drúedain’ in Unfinished Tales they ‘had, or were credited with, strange or magical powers’.