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Old 02-08-2007, 02:49 PM   #75
Raynor
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So you do not agree with Saulotus’ speculation that even Gandalf used the Melkorian element (within his body) when practising magic?
No, I don't. If it were so, the istari would have fallen the moment they started practicing magic outside Valinor; as such, it took centuries (for at least one of them) to fall to the dark side. To use Melkor's power is to fall to his influence.
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Is it only the ‘bad’ guys who use it?
Willingly - yes. Some ignorant users might resort to it also.
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If so, do the ‘good’ guys use only power directly from Ilúvatar?
Yes, by and large. If Gandalf imbued his staff with magic, he would be using "his" magic; however, the staff is imbued with Melkor's influence, so that comes into play too, to whatever small degree, indirectly and unwanted.
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Does no one use their ‘own’ power?
It depends on what that represents; own (innate) power is very much Iluvatar's.
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So you do not agree with Saulotus’ opinion that Tolkien noticed that there were problems with this ‘solution’ and decided that magic has to work in some other way, and therefore did not include this portion in the letter actually sent (published as letter #154)?
If I remember correctly, the problem with Mannish magic was related to the swords - however, those swords would have been made by numenoreans - some of them had the blood of Luthien, who could give them some magic power (as with Aragorn). What exactly did the normal Middle-Earth Men create or use, that would resemble magic? Nothing, as far as I know.
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