[jallanite]

Originally Posted by Ivriniel

How was his failure addressed, I wonder? By what intervention or on what Terms?

Tolkien writes redressed, not addressed. See http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/redressed for what the word means. Read the following two paragraphs to answer your question.

I'm wondering about a little something else as well. The 'white robes' effect on Orodruin - could equally have a 'line of effect' to Elrond (did Elrond 'imbue' just a wee little Elvish-ness INTO Frodo as a final added deterrent to wraith-isation. Yes, Frodo was getting pretty creepy at times and 'white' can also be either of Spectral White of the Necromantic --OR-- Valinorean kind. Random thought

So, tell us what this means. How does the white robe seen by Sam have any ‘line of effect’ to Elrond’s surgery? Your random thought seems to me not worth considering.

IOne of the reasons I was wary of Frodo, at Elrond's was because Frodo spoke as though it were 'not' him. That was a dissociation of will, I often wondered, an unconscious motivation to keep the Ring.

It may have been an unconscious motivation, or maybe not. Nerwen, in particular, was at you in more than one post to reveal your sources. But you didn’t. I guess because you can’t. You only babbled about the Banning of the Noldor and other tales supposed to have mostly occurred thousands of years before the War of the Ring, and used terms like precedent and juxtaposition which don’t prove anything. By your methods you could equally prove that since Jack the Ripper was a murderer in Victorian London that almost all his contemporaries in London were murderers.

I wonder for this debate, if it's always 'two truths' point to the same ali.gnment, somehow in argument. If one accepts that the Ring creates a 'split' in the Mind's Eye or a Splinter (ergo Star Wars Splinter of the Mind's Eye), then, of course, we are always going to have dual motivational systems at work for any bearer.

If “we are always going to have dual motivational systems at work for any bearer”, then show where Sam is badly affected. Sam, in the book, has only a brief temptation to use the Ring for Power, but quickly shakes it off.

So - the presence of concurrent motivations - to Vanity/Greed/Lust - and to Duty/Valour/Self-Sacrifice/Love and Preservation of Others seems entirely possible.

Yes, of course. But seems entirely possible is a rather weak conclusion. It also seems entirely possible that Frodo, until the end, was mostly faithful to the quest he had undertaken. True, when Frodo offers to give the Ring up to Galadriel he fails his quest, or would have done so, if Galadriel had accepted his offer and Frodo had then been able to carry it out.