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Originally Posted by cellurdur
I am confused about your argument here. You acknowledge that Earendil and Elwing had children before they were 30 and then you claim there is no evidence that their maturity rate was quicker than elves. Elves only reach full maturity and the age of majority at 50. The Half-elven age like Men do at the early stage as can be seen by the kids they had at a very young age relative to elves. Secondly we know that their aging then slows down, because Elrond and Elros have exactly the same potential in life. Half-elves whether mortal or immortal don't age as we call it nor do they get diseases.
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"Full maturity" does not mean they cannot bear children previous to 50. The age of majority in the U.S. can be either 18 or 21 (depending on whether you count voting or drinking

), and yet babies are born to girls no older than 12. The age of 50 is not set in stone like some towering monolith, so don't take everything so literally. Tolkien didn't, obviously, particularly in the case of Earendil and Elwing, who had to get married and have children before Tuor and Idril sailed off. The story required it.
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Originally Posted by cellurdur
Elrond did have a title that indicated Lordship. He was Lord of Rivendell. It's true he could claim the Kingship of the Sindar, but that seems to be something he never wanted to. With the death of Gil-galad there was nobody available to claim the High Kingship of the Noldor. Galadriel and Elrond, being either female or from the maternal line, were ineligible to claim it. Only direct male descendants from a paternal line could claim the High Kingship.
That being said, there is more to the term Elf Lord, than just being a Lord of the elves. Elrond certainly was a Lord of Elves. The title seems to mean not only a literal Lord of elves, but also an elf with a certain power and heritage. Elrond qualifies for every category except being a full Elf.
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I may be wrong, but I don't believe Tolkien ever referred to Elrond as the "Lord of Rivendell". The word Tolkien used was "Master", which has a different connotation altogether. As I said, it was a political thing.
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Originally Posted by cellurdur
Galadriel as I addressed earlier could not make the claim to be the Queen of the Noldor. The Noldor only accepted kings through the male line. After the death of Gil-galad there is a possibility that they could then have accepted Celebrimbor, but that was not meant to be as Mandos prophecised.
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Galadriel did not even choose to be named Queen of her subjects in Lorien, like Thranduil and Oropher did in Eryn Lasgalen. At the point of the War of the Ring, Galadriel could have given herself any title she wished, given her power and authority, and not a soul would have argued. But she wisely remained "Lady" Galadriel, again, for political reasons.
Quote:
Originally Posted by cellurdur
This is an interesting point and something I will have to look into, but I cannot at the moment. You may be right, but then the nickname could have been when Beren was not yet a Man.
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Tolkien the Ambiguous strikes again.