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Originally Posted by Belegorn
Not only that, he is called the mightiest of all the Children of Ilúvatar [Sil. ch. 11, p. 112].
Sure there is. It is said that "she was the mightiest and fairest of all the Elves that remained in Middle-earth" [Sil., p 370] for instance.
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Elrond was not an Elf. He is never referred to as an Elf. He is always Elrond the Halfelven. Nor are his sons or daughter called elves.
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Then Elros is not a Man if this is your logic. Elrond is an Elf, he chose to be so, as is said in Appendix A;
"At the end of the First Age the Valar gave to the Half-elven an irrevocable choice to which KINDRED they would BELONG. Elrond CHOSE to BE of Elven-kind"
Elrond is called the Half-elven because of his descent, but he IS an Elf, and chose to be so. Just has Elros is also called Half-elven, "Elros and Elrond, the Peredhil or Half-elven." [RotK, App. A] but he IS a Man because he chose to be so.
From the Silmarillion, "In Middle-earth dwelt also Gil-galad the High King, and with him was Elrond Half-elven, who chose, as was granted to him, to be numbered among the Eldar" [ch. 24, p. 315]
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Nothing here says he was an elf. Quite the opposite. He chose to have the life of the Elves, but he remained one of the Peredhil.
"Arwen was not an elf, but one of the half-elven who abandoned her elvish rights."-Letter 345.
The Halfevel are never included when the elves are mentioned. Notice how the Sons of Elrond are mentioned separately from Legolas the Elf. Legolas does not fear the Paths of the Dead, but we must assume the Sons of Elrond did.
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I would think because a group of the Númenóreans were Half-elven as well, though as we know they were in any case Men, in this case, High Men or Kings of Men, Dúnedain. Take for instance Erendis, a Númenórean, who says of the Men of Númenor, "Men in Númenor are half-Elves (said Erendis), especially the high men; they are neither the one nor the other." [Aldarion and Erendis, p. 216]
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There's the point. Elrond and Elros always remained Half-elven and had powers of both races. Even Aragorn is not strictly a pure man, but a descendant of Luthien.
'Anyway, a difference in the use of ‘magic’ in this story is that it is not to be come by by ‘lore’ or spells; but is in an inherent power not possessed or attainable by Men as such. Aragorn’s ‘healing’ might be regarded as ‘magical’, or at least a blend of magic with pharmacy and ‘hypnotic’ processes. But it is (in theory) reported by hobbits who have very little notions of philosophy and science; while A. is not a pure ‘Man’, but at long remove one of the ‘children of Luthien’-letter 155