Essex, maybe I'm misreading your words, if so then I apologise, but you say that the event (Frodo's 'potential' slaying of the Witch King) did not happen BECAUSE of the prophecy. This is incorrect. Nothing was caused because of the prophecy. It was the events which caused the prophecy.
As a philosophy student I'm perhaps a bit ashamed to be asking this, but does this imply backward causation? I know I should be able to work it out myself but I'm very sleepy right now!
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Los Ingobernables de Harlond
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