[Legate of Amon Lanc]

Originally Posted by jallanite

Yes, Gandalf could say that. But he said “Morgul”.

And that's why I'd say he meant the place rather than the sorcery. Because if he meant the sorcery, he could have used the word "sorcery" in common tongue. The placename of course does not have any synonym, so you have to use "Morgul". And, like Boro showed, the word is used also alone, without "Minas" or "Imlad", simply as a shortened version.

Whether morgul was a reasonably familiar word to Frodo in its basic meaning or not at the time is not clearly indicated one way of the other in The Lord of the Rings. And whether the place name Minas Morgul was known to Frodo before the Council of Elrond is not clearly indicated one way or the other in The Lord of the Rings.

Agreed. But think about it from Gandalf's perspective, as a person who is trying to convey a message to somebody else. We know Frodo knew Elvish, not so much about the placename (though he was well educated), but then again, elsewhere in the books, Gandalf has no problem with speaking about foreign places to people who never heard about them or do not know clearly what they are. But I do not recall any other situation where Gandalf would use a word in foreign language unless it lacked a synonym. And that would be the main reason. (Also, a sort of meta-reason would be that Tolkien does not do that either. He is not the person to throw around completely unintelligible words because it sounds "cool and fantasy", like many - usually cheap - fantasy books nowadays do. So even though I agree with your later conclusions about the usage of the words and the explanation of their meaning in the books etc., I think if Tolkien had written that sentence in that meaning, he would make Gandalf say something like "They tried to pierce your heart with a Morgul-knife, a sorcerous blade, which remains in the wound...")

And last of all, with your explanation of "Morgul", I wonder if the term "Morgul-spells" won't be a pleonasm of sorts: meaning "dark magic spells" (it would be enough to say just "dark magic" or "dark spells", I think... I think a linguist like Tolkien wouldn't necessary use that kind of words. But that's just my impression depending on the use of language, which is nothing definite).