[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Nikkolas

And why was it unsuccessful? Why did the Valar and Eru Himself slaughter helpless women and children?

Amandil's voyage was in vain because the Valar had already accepted such an embassy once before. Every time Men and Elves got in a bind, should they have had the fallback of running to the West for protection? No. That, ultimately, was not the purpose of the Valar.
It can be argued that the "gifts" given to the Edain by the Valar, their proximity to the Undying Lands and their extended lifespan, contributed to the fall of Númenor. However, you can't reasonably accuse the Valar and the One of murder because of it. What Ilúvatar did in destroying the island had to be done, as Ar-Pharazôn and his army could well have wrought death and ruin in Valinor.

Originally Posted by Nikkolas

This is not simply a case of "And Man Grew Proud." It's a case of "And Man...were Men and then were used by a being with powers and abilities far beyond their own. A being who is only at large because the gods were inept."

The Númenóreans made choices, some to follow the King's Men (and ultimately, Sauron), and some to hold fast to reverence for the Elves, the Valar, and Ilúvatar. That Sauron was not strong enough to sway all the people of Númenor is obvious. The King's Men followed him of their own free will. If the Faithful were capable of resisting, so were the others.

Originally Posted by Nikkolas

Speaking of which, I need to get to The Children of Hurin. it goes into greater detail of his life and character, right?

CoH is basically a melding of the Silmarillion generalisation of Túrin's tale and the much more detailed Narn in UT.

Originally Posted by Nikkolas

As for Melkor, he was born of Eru's mind. Eru Himself made Melkor to be willfull, fearful and proud. There's also the theological paradox present of whether free will can even exist if we are created by an omnipotent and omniscient being. Because even as we type these posts, this was foretold and destined to happen at the beginning of existence. Therefore free will cannot really exist.

But that really tangles up Tolkien's ideas with Christianity and that is a really heated debate I don't want to get into.

If you haven't already done so, check out this thread, which delves into that subject.

Originally Posted by Nikkolas

As for Sauron, he at least had noble intentions. His design was to rule the world because only through dictatorship could order and peace be achieved. It's understandable that he would think this way given the chaos he's seen. Unfortunately for him he overestimated his own ability to right all the wrongs of the world.

You're joking, right? That's why he sacrificed innocent people in Númenor, then? And why he made the Rings of Power? With them Sauron enslaved Nine Men, basically overwriting their innate humanity, turning them into undead slaves who had absolutely no will of their own. And let's not forget his impaling Celebrimbor's body on a pole and using it for a banner. If that isn't a sign of noble intentions, what is?

Originally Posted by tumhalad2

Unlike the War of the Ring in the Third Age, the Wars of Beleriand, pitting the Noldor and the Sindar against Morgoth, are offensive in their design; their goal is not merely to overthrow Morgoth because he is an existential threat, like Sauron.

And for that reason the Valar turned their backs on the Noldor: their war wasn't just.