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Originally Posted by Eönwë
I don't think it would be unreasonable to say that before Eä, they didn't have any needs of names or language, because they may not even have been physical, or at least in the sense that we are or understand.
It would only be once they entered the physical world of Eä that they would have a need for a language, as that would be when they could start becoming incarnate, and would need to (or more likely, just choose to, since they do literally have the whole of time to try new things) start using a language.
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Well my point was about the possible pitfalls of using letters here. In letter 211 Tolkien broadly (or simply) says that the Valar had no language, and that they had no 'true' names -- explaining that their names were given them by the Elves, and were nicknames.
To me this is quite different from the later conception: at some point the Valar have their own language, and:
'... for though the Valar have right names, they do not reveal them.' (save Orome and so on).