Quote:
Originally Posted by Legate of Amon Lanc
Okay, so reputedly Sauron does not use his "right" name - that's one interesting point, since, is really "Sauron" his "right" name? More about that later. Secondly, let us note that Sauron does not even "permit it to be spelt or spoken". That is probably the most interesting contradiction.
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I started writing this a few hours ago, then got interrupted, so some of this is going to overlap a little with what has now been posted by Inziladun!
The easiest explanation is that Aragorn is wrong. He is the only character who makes this claim about Sauron's name. Certainly Gimli assumed that Sauron permitted the use of his name, so it definitely isn't exactly "common knowledge" that the use of Sauron's name is forbidden.
Note that the messenger of Sauron who visits Dain also refers to his master as "Sauron".
Three things occur to me:
1. Perhaps the use of "Sauron" was only forbidden when he was residing in Dol Guldur. His true identity was not known at that time, although it was suspected by the White Council. Instead he was referred to as the Necromancer. Aragorn was alive at this time (although much younger) so perhaps he thinks (erroneously) that Sauron still forbids the use of the name. Sauron required secrecy when he was based in Dol Guldur - after he returned to Mordor there was no longer a requirement for secrecy.
2. When communicating with people of the West it certainly makes sense for Sauron's emissaries to use the name by which he is commonly known in the West.
3. Many people in the West are reluctant to actually speak Sauron's name out loud, so for a feared servant of Sauron to use the
dreaded name could well just be a psychological ploy.
As for Sauron's feelings about the meaning of the name, "The Abhorred", why would he be concerned? Surely he relishes the fact that he is regarded the most hated and feared individual in Middle Earth!
Another possibility is that Aragorn was
partially correct. Perhaps regular Orcs
are forbidden from mentioning the name of their Master. Certainly none of them do. However, the prohibition may not extend to Sauron's most trusted servants - some of whom are Men. If there is some special exception to the Rule then surely this would not be well-known, even to someone like Aragorn. I'm sure Aragorn isn't familiar with every Rule and By-law of Barad-dur!
Alternatively, Tolkien may have simply made a mistake. Aragorn's remark may be a leftover from an earlier draft that was left in due to an oversight. In fact, looking at what appears to be the original draft in
HOME VII, The Treason of Isengard I see this:
'S is for Sauron,' said Gimli. 'That is easy to read.'
'Nay,' said Legolas. 'Sauron does not use the Runes.'
'Neither does he use his right name or permit it to be spelt or
spoken,' said Trotter. 'And he does not use white. The orcs of
his immediate service bear the sign of the single eye.' He stood
for a moment in thought. 'S is for Saruman, I guess,' he said at
last. (from
XIX The Departure of Boromir)
So that is almost identical to the final version. Presumably the idea of the Mouth of Sauron came much later in the writing process. Still, I wonder about the earlier emissary of Sauron who went to Erebor? What did he say in the earlier drafts (if he was there at all)? Back to HOME again...